You admitted a client who experienced a precipitous labor.
What is the highest concern for maternal complication related to this type of labor?
Increased risk for an operative delivery.
Increased risk for postpartum hemorrhage (PPH).
Decreased risk for vaginal laceration.
Increased risk for neonatal sepsis.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Precipitous labor is a rapid labor that typically lasts less than 3 hours. While it can result in trauma and complications, it does not inherently increase the risk for an operative delivery,
which is more often related to other factors like fetal distress or failure to progress.
Choice B rationale
Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is a significant concern with precipitous labor due to the rapid and forceful contractions that can cause uterine atony, leading to increased bleeding
after birth.
Choice C rationale
In a precipitous labor, the rapid delivery can cause vaginal lacerations, not a decreased risk. The swift passage of the baby through the birth canal increases the risk of tears and
trauma.
Choice D rationale
Neonatal sepsis is related to infections acquired during delivery but is not specifically linked to the speed of labor. The primary concern in precipitous labor is maternal trauma and
hemorrhage, not infection.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Blue coloring of the hands and feet in an 8-hour-old newborn (acrocyanosis) is a common, benign finding as the newborn’s circulatory system adjusts post-birth. It does not require immediate intervention.
Choice B rationale
Small raised pearly spots on the nose (milia) are harmless and common in newborns. They do not necessitate any intervention.
Choice C rationale
An apical heart rate of 140 bpm is within the normal range for newborns and does not require intervention.
Choice D rationale
Nasal flaring and grunting are signs of respiratory distress in a newborn. This condition demands immediate intervention to ensure the newborn’s airway is clear and breathing is adequately supported.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Blood pressure should be addressed first due to the client’s elevated BP (144/92 mmHg), which is a potential sign of complications such as preeclampsia.
Choice B rationale
Pulse of 99 bpm is slightly elevated but not immediately concerning compared to the high BP.
Choice C rationale
Respirations are within normal range (17/min) and do not require immediate intervention.
Choice D rationale
Temperature of 100.4°F (38.0°C) is slightly elevated but not as critical as the high BP.