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While assessing a client at the beginning of the shift, a nurse notes that the client received a medication in error from the nurse on the previous shift. At which of the following times should the nurse plan to complete an incident report about the error?

A.

After the end of the current shift

B.

After contacting risk management

C.

As soon as the assessment is complete

D.

As soon as the nurse from the previous shift has been informed

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Rationale:

 

A. Delaying the incident report until the end of the current shift can compromise the timely documentation of the error and any necessary interventions that may arise.

 

B. While it's important to notify risk management, the priority should be to document the incident immediately after assessing the client to ensure a complete record of the error.

 

C. Completing the incident report as soon as the assessment is complete is the most appropriate action, allowing for prompt documentation of the error and any potential effects on patient care.

 

D. Informing the previous nurse is necessary for communication, but it should not delay the completion of the incident report, which is crucial for tracking errors and improving safety protocols.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Dyspepsia: While dyspepsia can be uncomfortable, it is not a critical finding that requires immediate reporting to the provider. It may be a common side effect of statins but typically does not warrant urgent intervention.

B. Elevated creatine kinase: An elevated creatine kinase level can indicate muscle damage, which is a serious side effect associated with rosuvastatin and other statins. This finding requires immediate reporting to prevent complications such as rhabdomyolysis.

C. Headache: A headache may occur with many medications and does not usually require immediate reporting unless it is severe or persistent.

D. Mostly cloudy: This option does not pertain to any specific clinical finding or symptom and is therefore not relevant to the question.

E. Decreased HDL cholesterol: While low HDL cholesterol can be a concern, it is not as urgent as elevated creatine kinase levels and typically does not require immediate action.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Sargramostim is a granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) used to stimulate the production of white blood cells but is not specifically indicated for anemia.

B. Filgrastim is a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) that increases white blood cell counts and is not used for treating anemia.

C. Epoetin is an erythropoiesis-stimulating agent that stimulates red blood cell production, making it the appropriate choice for treating chemotherapy-induced anemia.

D. Romiplostim is a thrombopoietin receptor agonist used to treat thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) and is not indicated for anemia.

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