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Which score would a nurse select from the muscle function grading scale if the client has full strength and range of motion in a given joint?

A.

+10

B.

+4

C.

+5

D.

+1

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) +10: This score does not exist on the muscle function grading scale, which typically ranges from 0 to 5. Using +10 could confuse the assessment and misrepresent the client's strength.

 

B) +4: This score indicates good strength against some resistance but not full strength. It suggests that the client has nearly complete function but may still have some limitations in range or strength.

 

C) +5: This score signifies full muscle strength and complete range of motion in a joint without any limitations. A score of +5 is what you would expect for a client demonstrating full strength, indicating optimal muscle function.

 

D) +1: This score indicates trace muscle contraction with minimal movement, which is far from the full strength described in the question. It suggests severe weakness and would not apply in this case.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Posterior superior iliac spine: While this landmark is useful for certain assessments, it is more commonly used to identify pelvic alignment rather than symmetry of the spine itself.

B) Iliac crests: The iliac crests serve as an important anatomical landmark for assessing symmetry in the posterior spine. By comparing the heights of the iliac crests on both sides, the nurse can determine any asymmetry in the pelvis and, by extension, the spine, as uneven heights may indicate spinal deformities.

C) Paravertebral muscles: While assessing the paravertebral muscles can provide information about muscle tone and potential asymmetries, they are not direct landmarks for evaluating overall spinal symmetry.

D) Twelfth thoracic vertebrae: Although identifying specific vertebrae is important for certain assessments, the twelfth thoracic vertebra is not commonly used as a primary landmark for assessing symmetry in the spine. It is more useful for locating the general area of the thoracic spine.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Idiopathic neuropathy has no known cause: This statement is accurate, as idiopathic neuropathy refers to nerve damage for which no specific cause can be identified despite thorough investigation. The term "idiopathic" literally means "of unknown origin," indicating that the underlying mechanism remains unclear.

B) Idiopathic neuropathy is hereditary in nature: While some neuropathies can be hereditary, idiopathic neuropathy itself is not classified as hereditary since it lacks a defined genetic cause. Hereditary neuropathies are specific types that have a genetic basis.

C) Idiopathic neuropathy is caused by nutritional deficits: Nutritional deficits can lead to various types of neuropathy, but idiopathic neuropathy specifically is characterized by the absence of a known cause. Therefore, attributing it to nutritional deficits would be incorrect.

D) Idiopathic neuropathy is caused by disease or illness: While certain diseases can cause neuropathy, the key characteristic of idiopathic neuropathy is that no specific disease or illness has been identified as the cause. This differentiates it from other neuropathies that are secondary to identifiable conditions.

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