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Which score would a nurse select from the muscle function grading scale if the client has full strength and range of motion in a given joint?

A.

+10

B.

+4

C.

+5

D.

+1

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) +10: This score does not exist on the muscle function grading scale, which typically ranges from 0 to 5. Using +10 could confuse the assessment and misrepresent the client's strength.

 

B) +4: This score indicates good strength against some resistance but not full strength. It suggests that the client has nearly complete function but may still have some limitations in range or strength.

 

C) +5: This score signifies full muscle strength and complete range of motion in a joint without any limitations. A score of +5 is what you would expect for a client demonstrating full strength, indicating optimal muscle function.

 

D) +1: This score indicates trace muscle contraction with minimal movement, which is far from the full strength described in the question. It suggests severe weakness and would not apply in this case.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Short stature: While body height can play a role in overall musculoskeletal health, short stature is not specifically identified as a risk factor for disc herniation. Other physical characteristics have a more direct impact on spinal issues.

B) Anorexia: Although nutritional status is important for general health, anorexia is not a recognized risk factor for disc herniation. The condition is more related to physical stressors and age rather than dietary habits alone.

C) 39 years of age: Age is a significant risk factor for disc herniation. Most cases occur in adults aged 30 to 50, as degenerative changes in the spine increase vulnerability to herniation. At 39, the client falls within this high-risk age range.

D) Female gender: While certain musculoskeletal conditions may vary by gender, disc herniation does not have a strong gender predisposition. Both men and women are equally affected, making this option less relevant as a specific risk factor.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Motor component of IV (Trochlear): The trochlear nerve primarily controls the superior oblique muscle of the eye, which is responsible for downward and lateral eye movements. The findings described do not relate to eye movement and therefore do not indicate dysfunction of this nerve.



B) Motor and sensory components of XI (Accessory): The accessory nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, primarily affecting head rotation and shoulder elevation. The symptoms noted in the assessment do not pertain to these muscle functions, so this option is not correct.

C) Motor component of VII (Facial): The signs of asymmetry in frowning, uneven eyebrow lifting, sagging eyelids, and air escaping when puffing the cheeks are characteristic of dysfunction in the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). This nerve controls the muscles of facial expression, and impairment would lead to the described asymmetrical movements.

D) Motor component of X (Vagus) and sensory component of XII (Hypoglossal): The vagus nerve affects autonomic functions and some swallowing muscles, while the hypoglossal nerve controls tongue movements. Neither nerve is primarily responsible for the facial expressions described in the assessment findings, making this option incorrect.

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