Which of the following statements regarding idiopathic neuropathy is true?
Idiopathic neuropathy has no known cause.
Idiopathic neuropathy is hereditary in nature.
Idiopathic neuropathy is caused by nutritional deficits.
Idiopathic neuropathy is caused by disease or illness.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Idiopathic neuropathy has no known cause: This statement is accurate, as idiopathic neuropathy refers to nerve damage for which no specific cause can be identified despite thorough investigation. The term "idiopathic" literally means "of unknown origin," indicating that the underlying mechanism remains unclear.
B) Idiopathic neuropathy is hereditary in nature: While some neuropathies can be hereditary, idiopathic neuropathy itself is not classified as hereditary since it lacks a defined genetic cause. Hereditary neuropathies are specific types that have a genetic basis.
C) Idiopathic neuropathy is caused by nutritional deficits: Nutritional deficits can lead to various types of neuropathy, but idiopathic neuropathy specifically is characterized by the absence of a known cause. Therefore, attributing it to nutritional deficits would be incorrect.
D) Idiopathic neuropathy is caused by disease or illness: While certain diseases can cause neuropathy, the key characteristic of idiopathic neuropathy is that no specific disease or illness has been identified as the cause. This differentiates it from other neuropathies that are secondary to identifiable conditions.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Stiff neck and shoulder pain: This symptom is very common in clients with a herniated cervical disc. The herniation can lead to irritation or compression of nearby nerves, resulting in localized pain in the neck and shoulder region. Clients often report this discomfort as one of their primary concerns.
B) Cauda equina syndrome: This serious condition arises from compression of the cauda equina, which occurs in the lower lumbar region of the spine, not the cervical area. Therefore, it is not a typical symptom of a cervical disc herniation.
C) Changes in knee and ankle reflexes: These changes are more associated with lumbar spine issues. While cervical disc problems can affect reflexes, they typically do not present as changes in lower limb reflexes, which are primarily linked to lower back conditions.
D) Sciatica: This term usually refers to pain that radiates down the leg due to compression of the sciatic nerve, often associated with lumbar disc herniation. It is not a common symptom of cervical disc herniation, which affects the neck and upper extremities.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) +10: This score does not exist on the muscle function grading scale, which typically ranges from 0 to 5. Using +10 could confuse the assessment and misrepresent the client's strength.
B) +4: This score indicates good strength against some resistance but not full strength. It suggests that the client has nearly complete function but may still have some limitations in range or strength.
C) +5: This score signifies full muscle strength and complete range of motion in a joint without any limitations. A score of +5 is what you would expect for a client demonstrating full strength, indicating optimal muscle function.
D) +1: This score indicates trace muscle contraction with minimal movement, which is far from the full strength described in the question. It suggests severe weakness and would not apply in this case.