Which of the following statements regarding idiopathic neuropathy is true?
Idiopathic neuropathy has no known cause.
Idiopathic neuropathy is hereditary in nature.
Idiopathic neuropathy is caused by nutritional deficits.
Idiopathic neuropathy is caused by disease or illness.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Idiopathic neuropathy has no known cause: This statement is accurate, as idiopathic neuropathy refers to nerve damage for which no specific cause can be identified despite thorough investigation. The term "idiopathic" literally means "of unknown origin," indicating that the underlying mechanism remains unclear.
B) Idiopathic neuropathy is hereditary in nature: While some neuropathies can be hereditary, idiopathic neuropathy itself is not classified as hereditary since it lacks a defined genetic cause. Hereditary neuropathies are specific types that have a genetic basis.
C) Idiopathic neuropathy is caused by nutritional deficits: Nutritional deficits can lead to various types of neuropathy, but idiopathic neuropathy specifically is characterized by the absence of a known cause. Therefore, attributing it to nutritional deficits would be incorrect.
D) Idiopathic neuropathy is caused by disease or illness: While certain diseases can cause neuropathy, the key characteristic of idiopathic neuropathy is that no specific disease or illness has been identified as the cause. This differentiates it from other neuropathies that are secondary to identifiable conditions.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Interrupt with frequent questions: While older adults may have questions, they typically do not interrupt frequently. This behavior is more indicative of anxiety or agitation rather than a cognitive change associated with aging.
B) Answer slowly and be confused: While some older adults may exhibit slower responses, confusion is not a normal cognitive change associated with aging. Confusion may suggest underlying issues such as delirium or dementia, rather than typical age-related cognitive changes.
C) Withdraw from strangers: Social withdrawal can occur in some older adults, but it is not a universal expectation. Many older adults remain engaged and sociable, and withdrawal is more commonly associated with mental health issues rather than cognitive changes.
D) Take longer to respond and react: It is common for older adults to take longer to process information and respond due to normal cognitive slowing. This may reflect changes in processing speed rather than a decline in cognitive function, and it is an expected part of aging.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Left extremity cool to touch, normal pitting edema, with femoral, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2: While this option describes the left extremity and includes some relevant details, it inaccurately uses "normal pitting edema" without specifying the degree of edema clearly. Additionally, it lists the posterior tibial pulse instead of the popliteal, which is more appropriate given the anatomical location.
B) Left lower extremity cool to touch, +2 pitting edema, with femoral, popliteal, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2: This documentation accurately describes the left lower extremity, specifies the degree of edema as "+2," and correctly identifies the relevant pulses as femoral, popliteal, and dorsalis pedis. This terminology is clear and concise, providing a comprehensive assessment of the vascular status.
C) Left lower leg cool to touch, +4 edema with femoral, posterial tibial, dorsalis and pedis pulses normal: This option incorrectly reports the degree of edema as "+4," which indicates severe swelling, not matching the original assessment of "mild edema." It also incorrectly lists the posterior tibial pulse, which should be popliteal.
D) Left lower leg normal cool temperature, slight swelling, femoral, posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses normal: The term "normal cool temperature" is confusing and not standard terminology. Additionally, "slight swelling" lacks specificity regarding the degree of edema, which is important for a clinical assessment. Furthermore, it inaccurately refers to the posterior tibial pulse instead of the popliteal.