Which of the following statements regarding idiopathic neuropathy is true?
Idiopathic neuropathy has no known cause.
Idiopathic neuropathy is hereditary in nature.
Idiopathic neuropathy is caused by nutritional deficits.
Idiopathic neuropathy is caused by disease or illness.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Idiopathic neuropathy has no known cause: This statement is accurate, as idiopathic neuropathy refers to nerve damage for which no specific cause can be identified despite thorough investigation. The term "idiopathic" literally means "of unknown origin," indicating that the underlying mechanism remains unclear.
B) Idiopathic neuropathy is hereditary in nature: While some neuropathies can be hereditary, idiopathic neuropathy itself is not classified as hereditary since it lacks a defined genetic cause. Hereditary neuropathies are specific types that have a genetic basis.
C) Idiopathic neuropathy is caused by nutritional deficits: Nutritional deficits can lead to various types of neuropathy, but idiopathic neuropathy specifically is characterized by the absence of a known cause. Therefore, attributing it to nutritional deficits would be incorrect.
D) Idiopathic neuropathy is caused by disease or illness: While certain diseases can cause neuropathy, the key characteristic of idiopathic neuropathy is that no specific disease or illness has been identified as the cause. This differentiates it from other neuropathies that are secondary to identifiable conditions.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Short stature: While body height can play a role in overall musculoskeletal health, short stature is not specifically identified as a risk factor for disc herniation. Other physical characteristics have a more direct impact on spinal issues.
B) Anorexia: Although nutritional status is important for general health, anorexia is not a recognized risk factor for disc herniation. The condition is more related to physical stressors and age rather than dietary habits alone.
C) 39 years of age: Age is a significant risk factor for disc herniation. Most cases occur in adults aged 30 to 50, as degenerative changes in the spine increase vulnerability to herniation. At 39, the client falls within this high-risk age range.
D) Female gender: While certain musculoskeletal conditions may vary by gender, disc herniation does not have a strong gender predisposition. Both men and women are equally affected, making this option less relevant as a specific risk factor.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Subjective report: The most reliable indicator of pain is the patient's own description of their experience. Pain is inherently subjective, and individuals may perceive and express pain differently. Listening to the client's self-report provides valuable insight into their pain intensity, quality, and impact on daily life, which cannot be accurately assessed through objective measures alone.
B) Physical exam: While a physical exam can provide important information about potential sources of pain or related conditions, it may not accurately reflect the intensity or nature of the pain the patient is experiencing. Physical findings may vary widely among individuals with similar pain complaints, making this a less reliable indicator.
C) Results of a CAT scan: Imaging studies like CAT scans can identify structural issues, such as fractures or tumors, but they do not measure pain. Many patients with significant pain may have normal imaging results, while others with severe findings may report minimal discomfort, underscoring the limitations of relying solely on diagnostic tests.
D) The client's vital signs: Vital signs can indicate physiological responses to pain, such as increased heart rate or blood pressure, but they are not specific indicators of pain severity. Many factors can influence vital signs, including anxiety and other medical conditions, making them unreliable for assessing pain levels independently.