Which of the following is the appropriate nursing care outcome for a client who suddenly develops anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy (ASP) during labor?
Client will be infection free at discharge.
Client will exhibit normal breathing function at discharge.
Client will exhibit normal gastrointestinal function at discharge.
Client will void without pain at discharge.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
While infection prevention is vital, ensuring breathing function is more critical after ASP.
Choice B rationale
ASP affects the respiratory system severely; thus, restoring normal breathing is a primary goal.
Choice C rationale
Gastrointestinal function is less immediately affected by ASP compared to respiratory issues.
Choice D rationale
Voiding without pain is important, but respiratory stability takes precedence.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Precipitous labor and birth are not directly associated with postpartum endometritis. The primary risk factors are related to infections during labor.
Choice B rationale
Postpartum endometritis is typically treated with a combination of antibiotics for 7-10 days, not a single dose of ampicillin or cephalosporin. A single dose would be insufficient for
treating the infection.
Choice C rationale
Postpartum endometritis is more common following cesarean birth due to increased risk of infection despite the use of sterile techniques during surgery.
Choice D rationale
Postpartum endometritis is associated with internal monitoring, amnioinfusion, prolonged labor, and prolonged rupture of membranes. These factors increase the risk of infection,
which can lead to endometritis.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the
likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.
Choice B rationale
A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications
associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.
Choice C rationale
A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to
complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.
Choice D rationale
A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative
risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .