When administering magnesium sulfate to a client with preeclampsia, the nurse understands that this drug is given to:
Increase diuresis.
Prevent seizures.
Reduce blood pressure.
Slow the process of labor.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Magnesium sulfate is not given to increase diuresis; this is not its primary effect and is incorrect in the context of treating preeclampsia.
Choice B rationale
Magnesium sulfate is administered to prevent seizures in patients with preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and helps in preventing eclampsia.
Choice C rationale
Although magnesium sulfate may have a mild effect on reducing blood pressure due to its vasodilatory properties, this is not its primary purpose in the management of preeclampsia.
Choice D rationale
Magnesium sulfate is not used to slow the process of labor; its main role is seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While intravenous antibiotics are given during labor to prevent GBS transmission to the baby, it is not administered at home but in the hospital when labor begins.
Choice B rationale
GBS does not significantly increase the risk of intrauterine infection that requires daily temperature checks; it primarily poses a risk of neonatal infection during delivery.
Choice C rationale
GBS bacteria reside in the vagina and can be transmitted to the baby during delivery. Administering antibiotics during labor helps protect the baby from serious GBS-related illnesses.
Choice D rationale
GBS does not cause scarlet fever or the symptoms described; those are caused by different bacteria, namely Streptococcus pyogenes. .
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Placental abruption involves the detachment of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery, causing bleeding, abdominal pain, and uterine tenderness. It does not typically cause dyspnea, hypotension, frothy sputum, or loss of consciousness.
Choice B rationale
Uterine rupture is a tear in the uterine wall, often in a scarred uterus. Symptoms include severe abdominal pain, abnormal fetal heart rate, and vaginal bleeding. It can cause shock, but not frothy sputum or sudden dyspnea.
Choice C rationale
Uterine inversion occurs when the uterus turns inside out, often during placental delivery. It leads to pain, hemorrhage, and shock. Like uterine rupture, it does not cause frothy sputum or sudden dyspnea.
Choice D rationale
Anaphylactoid syndrome (amniotic fluid embolism) occurs when amniotic fluid enters the maternal circulation, causing an anaphylactic reaction. Symptoms include sudden dyspnea, hypotension, frothy sputum, and loss of consciousness, fitting the scenario described.