When administering magnesium sulfate to a client with preeclampsia, the nurse understands that this drug is given to:
Increase diuresis.
Prevent seizures.
Reduce blood pressure.
Slow the process of labor.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Magnesium sulfate is not given to increase diuresis; this is not its primary effect and is incorrect in the context of treating preeclampsia.
Choice B rationale
Magnesium sulfate is administered to prevent seizures in patients with preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and helps in preventing eclampsia.
Choice C rationale
Although magnesium sulfate may have a mild effect on reducing blood pressure due to its vasodilatory properties, this is not its primary purpose in the management of preeclampsia.
Choice D rationale
Magnesium sulfate is not used to slow the process of labor; its main role is seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Reflexes of 3+ indicate hyperreflexia, common in pre-eclampsia, but not necessarily critical. Monitoring is essential but not an emergency.
Choice B rationale
Urinary output of 30 mL/hr is within the acceptable range but requires monitoring for any changes. It's not a critical alert.
Choice C rationale
A respiratory rate of 16 rpm is normal and does not indicate immediate risk requiring physician notification.
Choice D rationale
Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dL is significantly high, indicating potential toxicity. Immediate physician notification is critical to adjust magnesium sulfate administration.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 15-year-old, G3 P0020, although young, doesn't have an increased risk of uterine rupture related to prior surgical deliveries or other known factors.
Choice B rationale
A 22-year-old, G1 P0000 with eclampsia requires close monitoring for complications related to eclampsia but not specifically for uterine rupture.
Choice C rationale
A 25-year-old, G4 P3003 with a previous cesarean section is at increased risk for uterine rupture due to the scar from the prior surgery which could weaken under the stress of labor.
Choice D rationale
A 32-year-old, G2 P0100's history of a prior fetal demise does not specifically increase the risk of uterine rupture unless accompanied by other risk factors. .