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There are four clients in active labor in the labor suite.
Which of the clients should the nurse monitor carefully for a potential uterine rupture?

A.

Age 15, G3 P0020, in active labor.

B.

Age 22, G1 P0000, eclampsia.

C.

Age 25, G4 P3003, last delivery by cesarean section.

D.

Age 32, G2 P0100, first baby died during labor.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

A 15-year-old, G3 P0020, although young, doesn't have an increased risk of uterine rupture related to prior surgical deliveries or other known factors.

 

Choice B rationale

A 22-year-old, G1 P0000 with eclampsia requires close monitoring for complications related to eclampsia but not specifically for uterine rupture.

 

Choice C rationale

A 25-year-old, G4 P3003 with a previous cesarean section is at increased risk for uterine rupture due to the scar from the prior surgery which could weaken under the stress of labor.

 

Choice D rationale

A 32-year-old, G2 P0100's history of a prior fetal demise does not specifically increase the risk of uterine rupture unless accompanied by other risk factors. .


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

While it’s true that increased discomfort is expected with twins due to additional physical strain and space constraints, this alone is not sufficient reassurance. It is vital to assess for

signs of preterm labor or other complications.

Choice B rationale

Performing a digital cervical examination is a valid approach to checking for dilation, but this action must be carefully considered based on other signs and symptoms presented by

the patient. The focus here is on ensuring the absence or presence of labor, which might require hospital assessment.

Choice C rationale

Sending the patient to the hospital to be checked for possible signs of labor ensures that professional monitoring and interventions can occur if labor is confirmed. This action

prioritizes safety, given the increased risk of complications with twin pregnancies and the advanced gestation of 37 weeks.

Choice D rationale

Assuring the patient of the absence of contractions after an examination might provide temporary relief, but it does not address the possibility of other signs of labor or complications

that may require more comprehensive hospital assessment.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the

likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.

Choice B rationale

A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications

associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.

Choice C rationale

A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to

complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.

Choice D rationale

A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative

risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .

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