The primary healthcare provider for a client at 38 1/7 weeks' gestation calls the labor and delivery suite to schedule an induction for the next day. The client is having no medical or pregnancy complications.
Which of the following responses by the nurse would be appropriate?
At what time would you like to begin the induction?
What is the client's Bishop score?
I am sorry but the client will not be able to be induced tomorrow.
I will have the prostaglandin induction medication prepared.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Induction timing is secondary to assessing readiness. The Bishop score determines cervical favorability for induction success.
Choice B rationale
The Bishop score assesses cervical readiness for labor induction, which is vital in planning an effective induction.
Choice C rationale
Refusal to induce without considering clinical data is inappropriate. The Bishop score evaluation determines readiness.
Choice D rationale
Prostaglandin preparation follows Bishop score assessment to ensure induction safety and efficacy.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Magnesium sulfate is not given to increase diuresis; this is not its primary effect and is incorrect in the context of treating preeclampsia.
Choice B rationale
Magnesium sulfate is administered to prevent seizures in patients with preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and helps in preventing eclampsia.
Choice C rationale
Although magnesium sulfate may have a mild effect on reducing blood pressure due to its vasodilatory properties, this is not its primary purpose in the management of preeclampsia.
Choice D rationale
Magnesium sulfate is not used to slow the process of labor; its main role is seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Decreased pain level can be an effect of addressing the cause of pain, but it doesn't indicate improved uterine tone or resolution of atony.
Choice B rationale
Stable blood pressure is important, but it is not the direct outcome of improved uterine tone or the resolution of uterine atony.
Choice C rationale
A firm fundus at or below the umbilicus indicates successful contraction of the uterus, resolving uterine atony and reducing bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Reduced lochial flow can indicate decreased bleeding, but it does not directly indicate improved uterine tone or resolution of uterine atony.