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The primary healthcare provider for a client at 38 1/7 weeks' gestation calls the labor and delivery suite to schedule an induction for the next day. The client is having no medical or pregnancy complications.
Which of the following responses by the nurse would be appropriate?

A.

At what time would you like to begin the induction?

B.

What is the client's Bishop score?

C.

I am sorry but the client will not be able to be induced tomorrow.

D.

I will have the prostaglandin induction medication prepared.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

Induction timing is secondary to assessing readiness. The Bishop score determines cervical favorability for induction success. 

 

Choice B rationale

The Bishop score assesses cervical readiness for labor induction, which is vital in planning an effective induction.

 

Choice C rationale

Refusal to induce without considering clinical data is inappropriate. The Bishop score evaluation determines readiness.

 

Choice D rationale

Prostaglandin preparation follows Bishop score assessment to ensure induction safety and efficacy.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Placental abruption is characterized by abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and uterine tenderness. It does not cause dyspnea, hypotension, frothy sputum, or loss of consciousness.

Choice B rationale

Uterine rupture typically presents with severe abdominal pain, abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, and vaginal bleeding. Shock can occur, but not frothy sputum or sudden dyspnea.

Choice C rationale

Uterine inversion leads to pain, hemorrhage, and shock. It does not present with frothy sputum or sudden dyspnea.

Choice D rationale

Anaphylactoid syndrome (amniotic fluid embolism) results from amniotic fluid entering maternal circulation, causing an anaphylactic reaction. Symptoms include sudden dyspnea, hypotension, frothy sputum, and loss of consciousness, matching the described scenario. .

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Vaginal hematomas are usually associated with severe pain due to the accumulation of blood in the tissues.

Choice B rationale

Bleeding might be visible, but hematomas often cause internal accumulation, not external bleeding.

Choice C rationale

Warmth is not typically associated with hematomas; instead, pain and swelling are more common.

Choice D rationale

Redness may occur, but pain is the most consistent symptom.

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