Try our free nursing testbanks today. click here to join
Teas 7 test, Hesi A2 and Nursing prep
Nursingprepexams LEARN. PREPARE. EXCEL!
  • Home
  • Nursing
  • TEAS
  • HESI
  • Blog
Start Studying Now

Take full exam for free

The primary healthcare provider for a client at 38 1/7 weeks' gestation calls the labor and delivery suite to schedule an induction for the next day. The client is having no medical or pregnancy complications.
Which of the following responses by the nurse would be appropriate?

A.

At what time would you like to begin the induction?

B.

What is the client's Bishop score?

C.

I am sorry but the client will not be able to be induced tomorrow.

D.

I will have the prostaglandin induction medication prepared.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

Induction timing is secondary to assessing readiness. The Bishop score determines cervical favorability for induction success. 

 

Choice B rationale

The Bishop score assesses cervical readiness for labor induction, which is vital in planning an effective induction.

 

Choice C rationale

Refusal to induce without considering clinical data is inappropriate. The Bishop score evaluation determines readiness.

 

Choice D rationale

Prostaglandin preparation follows Bishop score assessment to ensure induction safety and efficacy.


Free Nursing Test Bank

  1. Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
  2. Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
  3. Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
  4. Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
  5. Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
  6. Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
  7. Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
  8. Free Community Health Quiz 8
  9. Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
  10. Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
Take full exam free

View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Vaginal hematomas are usually associated with severe pain due to the accumulation of blood in the tissues.

Choice B rationale

Bleeding might be visible, but hematomas often cause internal accumulation, not external bleeding.

Choice C rationale

Warmth is not typically associated with hematomas; instead, pain and swelling are more common.

Choice D rationale

Redness may occur, but pain is the most consistent symptom.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Postpartum psychosis is a serious mental health condition that can result in delusions and hallucinations. These symptoms increase the risk of harm to the infant, so it's essential that

the mother is not left alone with the baby to ensure both their safety.

Choice B rationale

Symptoms of postpartum psychosis typically last longer than one week and require medical intervention, contrary to what is stated in this choice. Treatment usually involves

antipsychotics, mood stabilizers, and sometimes hospitalization.

Choice C rationale

Clinical response to medications can be significant in many cases, and early and aggressive treatment often leads to improvement. This statement is inaccurate and does not reflect

the current understanding of postpartum psychosis treatment.

Choice D rationale

While monitoring vital signs is essential, it is not as critical as ensuring the infant's safety given the mother’s severe mental condition. The focus should be on psychiatric

management and safety protocols rather than routine vitals alone.

Quick Links

Nursing Teas Hesi Blog

Resources

Nursing Test banks Teas Prep Hesi Prep Nursingprepexams Blogs
© Nursingprepexams.com @ 2019 -2026, All Right Reserved.