The primary healthcare provider for a client at 38 1/7 weeks' gestation calls the labor and delivery suite to schedule an induction for the next day. The client is having no medical or pregnancy complications.
Which of the following responses by the nurse would be appropriate?
At what time would you like to begin the induction?
What is the client's Bishop score?
I am sorry but the client will not be able to be induced tomorrow.
I will have the prostaglandin induction medication prepared.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Induction timing is secondary to assessing readiness. The Bishop score determines cervical favorability for induction success.
Choice B rationale
The Bishop score assesses cervical readiness for labor induction, which is vital in planning an effective induction.
Choice C rationale
Refusal to induce without considering clinical data is inappropriate. The Bishop score evaluation determines readiness.
Choice D rationale
Prostaglandin preparation follows Bishop score assessment to ensure induction safety and efficacy.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A low transverse uterine scar is considered the safest type of uterine incision for a VBAC because it is less likely to rupture compared to other types of scars. Therefore, a low transverse uterine scar would not disqualify the patient for VBAC.
Choice B rationale
Patient asking multiple questions does not disqualify her for VBAC. Patient education and ensuring the patient’s understanding and agreement with the procedure is an essential part of the process.
Choice C rationale
Induction of labor in the first pregnancy does not automatically disqualify a patient from attempting VBAC. The success of VBAC depends on multiple factors including the reason for the initial cesarean section.
Choice D rationale
A cesarean due to pelvic abnormalities would disqualify the patient for VBAC because the underlying pelvic condition that necessitated the initial cesarean section is likely still present and would increase the risk of complications during vaginal birth.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
History of preterm birth is the principal risk factor for predicting preterm birth. Previous preterm births significantly increase the likelihood of subsequent preterm deliveries due to
underlying etiological factors.
Choice B rationale
Low prepregnancy weight is a risk factor but not as significant as a history of preterm birth. It can contribute to complications in pregnancy but does not have the same predictive value.
Choice C rationale
Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of preterm birth but is not the principal risk factor. It is a modifiable behavior that contributes to poor pregnancy outcomes.
Choice D rationale
Obesity can impact pregnancy outcomes but is not the principal risk factor for preterm birth. It is associated with other complications rather than directly predicting preterm delivery.