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The primary healthcare provider for a client at 38 1/7 weeks' gestation calls the labor and delivery suite to schedule an induction for the next day. The client is having no medical or pregnancy complications.
Which of the following responses by the nurse would be appropriate?

A.

At what time would you like to begin the induction?

B.

What is the client's Bishop score?

C.

I am sorry but the client will not be able to be induced tomorrow.

D.

I will have the prostaglandin induction medication prepared.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

Induction timing is secondary to assessing readiness. The Bishop score determines cervical favorability for induction success. 

 

Choice B rationale

The Bishop score assesses cervical readiness for labor induction, which is vital in planning an effective induction.

 

Choice C rationale

Refusal to induce without considering clinical data is inappropriate. The Bishop score evaluation determines readiness.

 

Choice D rationale

Prostaglandin preparation follows Bishop score assessment to ensure induction safety and efficacy.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Blood pressure of 160/110 indicates severe preeclampsia and warrants immediate intervention to prevent complications. Stopping oxytocin is part of the management of severe

preeclampsia to avoid exacerbating the condition.

Choice B rationale

Frequency of contractions every 3 minutes is within the normal range during labor induction and does not warrant stopping the infusion unless there are other concerns.

Choice C rationale

A fetal heart rate of 155 bpm with early decelerations may require close monitoring but does not necessarily warrant stopping the oxytocin infusion. Early decelerations are typically a

normal physiological response.

Choice D rationale

Frequency of contractions every 3 minutes is expected during active labor and is generally not a cause to stop the oxytocin infusion. The nurse should continue to monitor the labor

progression closely.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Reduction of fever is not a primary effect of carboprost tromethamine. This medication is primarily used to induce uterine contractions to manage postpartum hemorrhage.

Choice B rationale

While maintaining stable blood pressure is important, it is not the specific indicator of carboprost tromethamine's effectiveness. This medication is used to control bleeding.

Choice C rationale

Increased comfort, although significant, is not the direct effect of carboprost tromethamine. The primary aim is to induce uterine contractions to manage hemorrhage.

Choice D rationale

Decreased lochia rubra indicates the reduction of postpartum bleeding, which is the primary purpose of administering carboprost tromethamine. This outcome shows the medication is effective.

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