The nurse would contact the health care provider before administering an adrenergic drug to a client who is also taking which drug?
Antibiotic
MAO inhibitor
Diuretic
Analgesic
The Correct Answer is B
A. Antibiotics do not typically interact with adrenergic drugs in a way that would necessitate contacting the healthcare provider before administration.
B. MAO inhibitors can cause significant interactions with adrenergic drugs, potentially leading to hypertensive crises due to increased norepinephrine levels. Therefore, the nurse should contact the healthcare provider to assess the risks before administering an adrenergic agent.
C. Diuretics may affect fluid and electrolyte balance, but they do not pose a direct interaction risk with adrenergic drugs that would require prior consultation with the healthcare provider.
D. Analgesics do not have a significant interaction with adrenergic drugs that would warrant contacting the healthcare provider, as they are used for pain management and can often be safely administered together.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While historical context is useful, the development of antimicrobials primarily began in the early 20th century, notably with penicillin discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1928.
B. This statement is incorrect; fluoroquinolones primarily inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis rather than directly affecting the cell wall.
C. Selective toxicity is a principle of antimicrobial action but does not directly explain how a specific antimicrobial works therapeutically.
D. Penicillin specifically interferes with the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall, leading to cell lysis and death of the bacteria, which is a fundamental mechanism of action for this antibiotic.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the primary laboratory test used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy, measuring the time it takes for blood to clot and ensuring therapeutic levels.
C. The International normalized ratio (INR) is also related to warfarin therapy rather than heparin.
D. Serum potassium level is not relevant for assessing heparin therapy but may be monitored for other reasons.