The nurse receives a new client from the emergency department with an order for propranolol (Inderal). Upon looking at the client's history. which diagnosis would make the nurse clarify this order?
Tachycardia
End-stage kidney failure
Hypertension
Asthma
The Correct Answer is D
A) Tachycardia: Propranolol is often used to manage tachycardia by reducing heart rate and controlling excessive adrenergic activity. Therefore, this diagnosis would not warrant clarification of the order; it is an appropriate use of the medication.
B) End-stage kidney failure: While caution is necessary when administering medications in clients with renal impairment, propranolol is primarily metabolized by the liver, and its use is not contraindicated in end-stage kidney failure. However, renal function can affect dosing, so monitoring would be important, but this diagnosis alone wouldn't require clarification.
C) Hypertension: Propranolol is commonly prescribed to manage hypertension, making this diagnosis a valid reason for the medication order. The use of propranolol in this context would not need clarification.
D) Asthma: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker, which can cause bronchoconstriction and exacerbate asthma symptoms. This diagnosis would require the nurse to clarify the order, as beta-blockers are generally contraindicated in clients with asthma due to the risk of respiratory complications. If the client has reactive airway disease, an alternative medication should be considered.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "For confirmed diagnosis of hypertension, the BP readings should be higher than normal on 2 or more separate occasions.": This statement accurately reflects the criteria for diagnosing hypertension. According to guidelines, a diagnosis is typically confirmed when blood pressure readings consistently exceed normal levels (usually defined as 130/80 mm Hg) on two or more separate visits.
B. "For confirmed diagnosis of hypertension, BP readings should be lower than normal on only one occasion.": This statement is incorrect. A single low reading does not confirm a diagnosis of hypertension. In fact, it contradicts the concept of hypertension, which involves consistently high readings.
C. "For confirmed diagnosis of hypertension, BP readings should be higher than normal on more than three separate occasions.": This statement is misleading. While multiple readings are often taken, the threshold for diagnosis is two or more elevated readings, not three.
D. "For confirmed diagnosis of hypertension, the BP readings should be higher than normal on only one occasion.": This statement is inaccurate, as a single elevated reading is not sufficient for diagnosis. Consistent elevations over multiple occasions are necessary for a confirmed diagnosis.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Vitamin A: While vitamin A can affect various bodily functions, it is not known to have a direct interaction with warfarin. Therefore, it is not considered incompatible with warfarin therapy.
B) Alprazolam: This medication, a benzodiazepine, is primarily used to treat anxiety and does not have a significant interaction with warfarin. Thus, it is not incompatible with warfarin therapy.
C) Vitamin K: This vitamin is a critical consideration when a client is on warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, so an increased intake of vitamin K can counteract the effects of warfarin, making this the correct answer. Clients on warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K to prevent fluctuations in their INR levels.
D) Furosemide: This loop diuretic is used to manage conditions such as heart failure and edema. While it may affect electrolyte levels, it does not have a direct interaction that would render it incompatible with warfarin. It can be safely used alongside warfarin with appropriate monitoring.