The nurse performs a neurological assessment and determines the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15. What will the nurse do next?
Re-assess in 15 minutes
Ask the patient to open eyes on command
Document the findings
Notify the physician
The Correct Answer is C
A) Re-assess in 15 minutes: While regular assessments are important in a neurological evaluation, if the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15, indicating the patient is fully alert and oriented, there may not be an immediate need to re-assess so soon unless the patient's condition changes.
B) Ask the patient to open eyes on command: If the GCS score is already determined to be 15, this indicates that the patient is responsive and capable of opening their eyes spontaneously. Asking the patient to open their eyes is unnecessary in this context since the score already reflects full responsiveness.
C) Document the findings: Documenting the GCS score of 15 is crucial as it establishes a baseline for the patient’s neurological status. This documentation is essential for ongoing assessments and monitoring, providing a record of the patient’s condition at this moment.
D) Notify the physician: Notifying the physician is not required for a GCS score of 15, as this score indicates a normal level of consciousness. Communication with the physician would be warranted only if there were changes in the patient's condition or a lower GCS score observed.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Eupnea: Eupnea refers to a normal respiratory rate, typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute for adults. Given that the client’s respiratory rate is significantly lower than this range, documenting the finding as eupnea would not accurately reflect the client’s condition.
B) Bradypnea: Bradypnea is defined as a slower-than-normal respiratory rate, usually less than 12 breaths per minute. With the client's rate at 9 breaths per minute, this is an example of bradypnea. It is crucial for the nurse to document this finding accurately, even though the client denies feeling short of breath, as it could indicate an underlying issue requiring further assessment.
C) Tachypnea: Tachypnea indicates a faster-than-normal respiratory rate, typically over 20 breaths per minute. Since the client's respiratory rate is low at 9 breaths per minute, labeling it as tachypnea would be incorrect and misleading.
D) Dyspnea: Dyspnea refers to difficulty or discomfort in breathing. Although the client does not report feeling short of breath, it is essential to note that the low respiratory rate could still lead to respiratory distress, but it does not meet the criteria for dyspnea based on the client's self-report. Therefore, documenting this finding as dyspnea would not be appropriate.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Occurs only in the clinical area: Focused assessments can be conducted in various settings, including outpatient clinics, home health visits, and emergency departments. Thus, this statement does not accurately define the difference.
B) Involves all body systems: A focused assessment is specifically targeted and does not involve an evaluation of all body systems. Instead, it concentrates on particular areas of concern, making this statement incorrect.
C) Covers the body from head to toe: This describes a comprehensive assessment rather than a focused one. A comprehensive assessment is thorough and covers the entire body, while a focused assessment zeroes in on specific issues or symptoms.
D) More in depth on specific issues: A focused assessment is designed to gather detailed information about particular health problems or concerns rather than providing a broad overview of the patient’s overall health. This targeted approach allows healthcare providers to identify and address specific needs effectively, making this the correct choice.