The nurse performs a neurological assessment and determines the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15. What will the nurse do next?
Re-assess in 15 minutes
Ask the patient to open eyes on command
Document the findings
Notify the physician
The Correct Answer is C
A) Re-assess in 15 minutes: While regular assessments are important in a neurological evaluation, if the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15, indicating the patient is fully alert and oriented, there may not be an immediate need to re-assess so soon unless the patient's condition changes.
B) Ask the patient to open eyes on command: If the GCS score is already determined to be 15, this indicates that the patient is responsive and capable of opening their eyes spontaneously. Asking the patient to open their eyes is unnecessary in this context since the score already reflects full responsiveness.
C) Document the findings: Documenting the GCS score of 15 is crucial as it establishes a baseline for the patient’s neurological status. This documentation is essential for ongoing assessments and monitoring, providing a record of the patient’s condition at this moment.
D) Notify the physician: Notifying the physician is not required for a GCS score of 15, as this score indicates a normal level of consciousness. Communication with the physician would be warranted only if there were changes in the patient's condition or a lower GCS score observed.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Changes in peripheral vision in response to light: While peripheral vision is important in a comprehensive eye assessment, it is not specifically evaluated through the PERRLA acronym. PERRLA focuses on how the pupils respond to light and accommodation, not on peripheral vision changes.
B) Involuntary blinking in the presence of bright light: Involuntary blinking is part of a reflex action known as the blink reflex, which helps protect the eyes from bright lights and foreign objects. However, this response is not what the "A" in PERRLA refers to, which is more specifically about pupillary reactions to focus.
C) Pupillary dilation when looking at a near object: When focusing on a near object, the pupils actually constrict rather than dilate. This process, known as accommodation, is important for clear vision at close distances but does not pertain to the dilation of pupils.
D) Pupillary constriction when looking at a near object: The "A" in PERRLA stands for accommodation, which specifically refers to the pupils constricting when a person looks at a nearby object. This reaction helps the eyes focus properly and is a normal finding in a healthy neurological assessment. Thus, option D accurately describes the "A" in the PERRLA assessment.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Eupnea: Eupnea refers to a normal respiratory rate, typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute for adults. Given that the client’s respiratory rate is significantly lower than this range, documenting the finding as eupnea would not accurately reflect the client’s condition.
B) Bradypnea: Bradypnea is defined as a slower-than-normal respiratory rate, usually less than 12 breaths per minute. With the client's rate at 9 breaths per minute, this is an example of bradypnea. It is crucial for the nurse to document this finding accurately, even though the client denies feeling short of breath, as it could indicate an underlying issue requiring further assessment.
C) Tachypnea: Tachypnea indicates a faster-than-normal respiratory rate, typically over 20 breaths per minute. Since the client's respiratory rate is low at 9 breaths per minute, labeling it as tachypnea would be incorrect and misleading.
D) Dyspnea: Dyspnea refers to difficulty or discomfort in breathing. Although the client does not report feeling short of breath, it is essential to note that the low respiratory rate could still lead to respiratory distress, but it does not meet the criteria for dyspnea based on the client's self-report. Therefore, documenting this finding as dyspnea would not be appropriate.