The nurse notes which of the following about the patient's skin during her morning assessment? Select all that apply.
Texture
Tachypnea
Turgor
Temperature
Tympany
Correct Answer : A,C,D
A) Texture: Assessing the texture of the skin is an important part of a comprehensive skin assessment. It provides insights into the health and hydration status of the skin. Normal skin texture should feel smooth and even, while changes can indicate issues such as dryness or conditions like eczema or psoriasis.
B) Tachypnea: This term refers to an increased respiratory rate and is not a characteristic assessed in the skin. While it can indicate a physiological response to various conditions, it does not relate to skin health or characteristics and therefore is not relevant in this context.
C) Turgor: Skin turgor refers to the elasticity and hydration status of the skin, which can be assessed by pinching the skin. Proper turgor indicates adequate hydration, while decreased turgor can signal dehydration or other health issues. This is an essential component of skin assessment.
D) Temperature: Assessing the temperature of the skin can provide information about circulation and potential inflammation or infection. Normal skin temperature should feel warm and consistent, while variations can suggest underlying conditions such as fever or shock.
E) Tympany: Tympany is a term used in percussion assessments of the abdomen and is not applicable to skin assessment. It refers to a hollow sound produced by tapping on a body surface and does not pertain to skin characteristics.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Eupnea: Eupnea refers to a normal respiratory rate, typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute for adults. Given that the client’s respiratory rate is significantly lower than this range, documenting the finding as eupnea would not accurately reflect the client’s condition.
B) Bradypnea: Bradypnea is defined as a slower-than-normal respiratory rate, usually less than 12 breaths per minute. With the client's rate at 9 breaths per minute, this is an example of bradypnea. It is crucial for the nurse to document this finding accurately, even though the client denies feeling short of breath, as it could indicate an underlying issue requiring further assessment.
C) Tachypnea: Tachypnea indicates a faster-than-normal respiratory rate, typically over 20 breaths per minute. Since the client's respiratory rate is low at 9 breaths per minute, labeling it as tachypnea would be incorrect and misleading.
D) Dyspnea: Dyspnea refers to difficulty or discomfort in breathing. Although the client does not report feeling short of breath, it is essential to note that the low respiratory rate could still lead to respiratory distress, but it does not meet the criteria for dyspnea based on the client's self-report. Therefore, documenting this finding as dyspnea would not be appropriate.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
A) Alert and oriented: Being alert and oriented typically indicates adequate oxygenation, not hypoxia. Patients experiencing hypoxia are more likely to show signs of confusion or altered mental status rather than clarity.
B) Cyanosis: Cyanosis is a classic sign of hypoxia, presenting as a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in the blood. This is a significant indicator of inadequate oxygenation.
C) Anxiety and restlessness: These symptoms are common responses to hypoxia as the body attempts to compensate for insufficient oxygen. Patients may feel anxious or restless as they struggle to breathe or feel a sense of impending doom.
D) Oxygen saturation 96%: An oxygen saturation level of 96% is generally considered normal and indicates adequate oxygenation. Therefore, this finding does not suggest hypoxia.
E) Capillary refill 5 seconds: A prolonged capillary refill time can indicate poor perfusion and potential hypoxia. Inadequate blood flow can lead to reduced oxygen delivery to tissues, making this a relevant sign of hypoxia