The nurse knows the rationale for combination chemotherapy is to:
limit episodes of anticipatory and delayed emesis
lessen the client's risk of developing neutropenia
decrease time intervals between remission
broaden range of cell kill while minimizing toxicities to the client
The Correct Answer is D
A. While limiting emesis is important in cancer treatment, combination chemotherapy primarily focuses on improving efficacy and minimizing toxicities, not specifically targeting nausea and vomiting episodes.
B. Combination chemotherapy can actually increase the risk of neutropenia due to the cumulative effects of multiple agents, as each may independently lower white blood cell counts.
C. Decreasing time intervals between remission is not a primary goal of combination chemotherapy; rather, it aims to achieve better overall treatment outcomes.
D. The main rationale for using combination chemotherapy is to broaden the range of cancer cell kill through different mechanisms of action while minimizing the side effects associated with higher doses of a single agent. This approach can improve treatment efficacy and reduce the likelihood of resistance.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While using the correct needle size is important for insulin administration, it is not the most critical aspect of discharge planning. The focus should be on managing blood glucose levels and recognizing when medical intervention is needed.
B. Monitoring the skin for dryness at the injection site is a good practice, but it is not the most urgent issue to address in discharge planning for a newly diagnosed diabetic client.
C. Consistently elevated blood glucose levels above 200 mg/dL may indicate poor control of diabetes and require prompt adjustments in treatment. Teaching the client to recognize and report hyperglycemia is essential to prevent complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
D. Eye exams are important for long-term diabetes management to monitor for diabetic retinopathy, but every 3 months is excessive. Annual eye exams are typically sufficient unless otherwise indicated by the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant commonly used to treat neuropathic pain, including trigeminal neuralgia. It works by stabilizing nerve activity and is appropriate for this condition.
B. Carbamazepine is considered the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia as it decreases nerve impulses, which helps reduce pain. It is a commonly prescribed medication for this condition.
C. Baclofen is a muscle relaxant and can be used in combination with anticonvulsants to treat trigeminal neuralgia by reducing muscle spasms associated with nerve irritation.
D. Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic that treats general pain but is not typically effective for the specific type of neuropathic pain experienced in trigeminal neuralgia. Opioids do not address the underlying nerve activity and are not recommended for long-term management of this condition.