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The nurse knows the rationale for combination chemotherapy is to:

A.

limit episodes of anticipatory and delayed emesis

B.

lessen the client's risk of developing neutropenia

C.

decrease time intervals between remission

D.

broaden range of cell kill while minimizing toxicities to the client

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. While limiting emesis is important in cancer treatment, combination chemotherapy primarily focuses on improving efficacy and minimizing toxicities, not specifically targeting nausea and vomiting episodes.  

 

B. Combination chemotherapy can actually increase the risk of neutropenia due to the cumulative effects of multiple agents, as each may independently lower white blood cell counts.  

 

C. Decreasing time intervals between remission is not a primary goal of combination chemotherapy; rather, it aims to achieve better overall treatment outcomes.  

 

D. The main rationale for using combination chemotherapy is to broaden the range of cancer cell kill through different mechanisms of action while minimizing the side effects associated with higher doses of a single agent. This approach can improve treatment efficacy and reduce the likelihood of resistance. 


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Measuring abdominal girth may be relevant for assessing potential complications like abdominal distention, but it is not the immediate priority in response to serosanguinous drainage from the nasogastric tube.

B. Continuing to monitor the drainage is appropriate, as serosanguinous fluid is common immediately after surgery and may gradually change as healing progresses. Monitoring allows for the identification of any changes that may require further intervention.

C. Notifying the physician may be necessary if the drainage increases or changes significantly, but immediate action is to observe and assess the drainage trend.

D. Irrigating the nasogastric tube is not warranted unless there is an obstruction or significant change in the drainage; it should only be done based on specific orders or protocols.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant commonly used to treat neuropathic pain, including trigeminal neuralgia. It works by stabilizing nerve activity and is appropriate for this condition.

B. Carbamazepine is considered the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia as it decreases nerve impulses, which helps reduce pain. It is a commonly prescribed medication for this condition.

C. Baclofen is a muscle relaxant and can be used in combination with anticonvulsants to treat trigeminal neuralgia by reducing muscle spasms associated with nerve irritation.

D. Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic that treats general pain but is not typically effective for the specific type of neuropathic pain experienced in trigeminal neuralgia. Opioids do not address the underlying nerve activity and are not recommended for long-term management of this condition.

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