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The nurse is triaging several patients in an urgent care center. One patient states that he has hemophilia and is bleeding, with no apparent signs of bleeding. Which priority action by the nurse is most appropriate at this time?

A.

Have the patient take a number and stay in the waiting area.

B.

Place the patient in an examination room immediately and notify the physician of a potential bleeding crisis.

C.

Send the patient for routine x-rays to locate the source of bleeding and place him in an examination room.

D.

Palpate the suspected area of bleeding for tenderness and edema.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Have the patient take a number and stay in the waiting area. Delaying care could lead to worsening of a potentially life-threatening bleeding episode. Hemophilia patients should be assessed promptly.

 

B. Place the patient in an examination room immediately and notify the physician of a potential bleeding crisis. Hemophilia patients are at risk of internal bleeding, which may not always be visible externally. Rapid assessment is essential to prevent complications from internal bleeding.

 

C. Send the patient for routine x-rays to locate the source of bleeding and place him in an examination room. X-rays may not immediately detect bleeding in soft tissues. The physician should evaluate the patient first.

 

D. Palpate the suspected area of bleeding for tenderness and edema. Palpating could worsen bleeding or cause pain, and the nurse should focus on ensuring the patient is seen promptly by the physician.


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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Skin color: While skin color can show signs of reactions, it is a secondary measure. Temperature changes can be more immediately significant in assessing transfusion reactions.

B. Temperature: Temperature is the priority because a fever can indicate an infection or may develop as a sign of a transfusion reaction. Monitoring baseline temperature helps quickly identify febrile reactions to the transfusion.

C. Hemoglobin level: Although important to verify, the hemoglobin level is part of the overall assessment but does not directly predict or prevent transfusion reactions.

D. Fluid intake: Fluid intake is monitored for fluid overload risk but is not as immediate in the prevention of transfusion reactions.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Malformed RBCs: Malformed RBCs are not caused by a transfusion reaction; they are generally a result of bone marrow abnormalities or genetic conditions.

B. A deficiency in vitamin B12: Vitamin B12 deficiency causes megaloblastic anemia, not hemolysis. It is unrelated to transfusion reactions.

C. An abundance of immature RBCs: Immature RBCs, or reticulocytes, can increase as a compensatory response to anemia but are not a direct result of a transfusion reaction. The primary issue is RBC destruction.

D. Destruction of RBCs: A hemolytic reaction occurs when the immune system attacks incompatible red blood cells, leading to their destruction.

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