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The nurse is reviewing the charts of several clients as she prepares to go over discharge teaching. Which of the following clients does the nurse recognize as having an increased risk for a difficult or ineffective transition to motherhood?

A.

A 29-year-old G3P3003 who had an uncomplicated SVD at term. Husband is at bedside. Older daughter is currently meeting her new sibling.

B.

A 37-year-old G3P1112 with worsening preeclampsia who was induced at 34 weeks. She is currently on Magnesium Sulfate. Baby is in the NICU.

C.

A 31-year-old G3P2012 who had an uncomplicated SVD. History of depression. Her husband is active-duty military and is currently deployed.

D.

A 16-year-old G1P1001 who delivered via cesarean section.

E.

A 20-year-old G1P1001 who had an unmedicated, uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal delivery (SVD) at term.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

 

A 29-year-old G3P3003 with an uncomplicated SVD at term and a supportive family environment is less likely to experience difficulties in transitioning to motherhood. The presence of her husband and older daughter provides a strong support system, which is beneficial for her adjustment.

 

Choice B rationale

 

A 37-year-old G3P1112 with worsening preeclampsia, induced at 34 weeks, currently on Magnesium Sulfate, and with a baby in the NICU, faces multiple stressors. The medical complications, preterm delivery, and separation from her baby due to NICU admission increase her risk for a difficult transition to motherhood. The use of Magnesium Sulfate can also affect her physical and emotional well-being.

 

Choice C rationale

 

A 31-year-old G3P2012 with a history of depression and a husband who is deployed faces significant challenges. The history of depression increases her risk for postpartum depression, and the absence of her husband can lead to feelings of isolation and increased stress.

 

Choice D rationale

 

A 16-year-old G1P1001 who delivered via cesarean section is at risk due to her young age and the surgical delivery. Adolescents may have less experience and resources to cope with the demands of motherhood, and the recovery from a cesarean section can add to the physical and emotional challenges.

 

Choice E rationale

 

A 20-year-old G1P1001 with an uncomplicated SVD and the presence of her boyfriend is less likely to face significant difficulties. The uncomplicated delivery and the support of her boyfriend provide a stable environment for her transition to motherhood. .


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Warm compresses can help to reduce perineal pain and swelling by increasing blood flow to the area, which promotes healing and provides comfort. The warmth can also help to relax the muscles and reduce discomfort.

Choice B rationale

Tucks pads, which contain witch hazel, are effective in reducing perineal pain and swelling. Witch hazel has anti-inflammatory and astringent properties that help to soothe irritated skin and reduce swelling, providing relief from discomfort.

Choice C rationale

Dermaplast spray is a topical anesthetic that provides temporary relief from perineal pain. It contains benzocaine, which numbs the area and reduces pain. It also has antiseptic properties that help to prevent infection in the perineal area.

Choice D rationale

Ibuprofen 600 mg PO is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that helps to reduce pain and inflammation. It works by inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, which are chemicals that cause inflammation and pain. Taking ibuprofen can provide significant relief from perineal discomfort.

Choice E rationale

Encouraging the patient to sit in a high Fowler’s position is not recommended for perineal pain management. This position can increase pressure on the perineum, potentially worsening the pain and discomfort.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Swelling in both breasts is more indicative of engorgement rather than mastitis. Mastitis typically affects only one breast.

Choice B rationale

A white patch on a nipple is more likely a sign of a yeast infection (thrush) rather than mastitis.

Choice C rationale

Cracked and bleeding nipples can be a risk factor for mastitis but are not a definitive sign of the condition.

Choice D rationale

A red and painful area in one breast is a classic sign of mastitis. This condition is often accompanied by flu-like symptoms such as fever and malaise.

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