The nurse is reviewing the charts of several clients as she prepares to go over discharge teaching. Which of the following clients does the nurse recognize as having an increased risk for a difficult or ineffective transition to motherhood?
A 29-year-old G3P3003 who had an uncomplicated SVD at term. Husband is at bedside. Older daughter is currently meeting her new sibling.
A 37-year-old G3P1112 with worsening preeclampsia who was induced at 34 weeks. She is currently on Magnesium Sulfate. Baby is in the NICU.
A 31-year-old G3P2012 who had an uncomplicated SVD. History of depression. Her husband is active-duty military and is currently deployed.
A 16-year-old G1P1001 who delivered via cesarean section.
A 20-year-old G1P1001 who had an unmedicated, uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal delivery (SVD) at term.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
A 29-year-old G3P3003 with an uncomplicated SVD at term and a supportive family environment is less likely to experience difficulties in transitioning to motherhood. The presence of her husband and older daughter provides a strong support system, which is beneficial for her adjustment.
Choice B rationale
A 37-year-old G3P1112 with worsening preeclampsia, induced at 34 weeks, currently on Magnesium Sulfate, and with a baby in the NICU, faces multiple stressors. The medical complications, preterm delivery, and separation from her baby due to NICU admission increase her risk for a difficult transition to motherhood. The use of Magnesium Sulfate can also affect her physical and emotional well-being.
Choice C rationale
A 31-year-old G3P2012 with a history of depression and a husband who is deployed faces significant challenges. The history of depression increases her risk for postpartum depression, and the absence of her husband can lead to feelings of isolation and increased stress.
Choice D rationale
A 16-year-old G1P1001 who delivered via cesarean section is at risk due to her young age and the surgical delivery. Adolescents may have less experience and resources to cope with the demands of motherhood, and the recovery from a cesarean section can add to the physical and emotional challenges.
Choice E rationale
A 20-year-old G1P1001 with an uncomplicated SVD and the presence of her boyfriend is less likely to face significant difficulties. The uncomplicated delivery and the support of her boyfriend provide a stable environment for her transition to motherhood. .
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
An intrauterine device (IUD) is one of the most reliable methods of contraception. It is a small, T-shaped device inserted into the uterus by a healthcare provider. IUDs can be hormonal or non-hormonal (copper). Hormonal IUDs release progestin, which thickens cervical mucus to prevent sperm from reaching the egg and thins the uterine lining to prevent implantation. Copper IUDs release copper ions, which are toxic to sperm. Both types of IUDs are over 99% effective and can last for several years, making them a highly reliable form of contraception.
Choice B rationale
Oral contraceptives, commonly known as birth control pills, are also effective but require daily adherence. They contain hormones (estrogen and progestin) that prevent ovulation, thicken cervical mucus, and thin the uterine lining. However, their effectiveness can decrease with missed doses, certain medications, or gastrointestinal disturbances. With typical use, their effectiveness is around 91%, meaning 9 out of 100 women may become pregnant each year.
Choice C rationale
Male condoms are a barrier method of contraception that prevent sperm from entering the uterus. They are also effective in preventing sexually transmitted infections (STIs). However, their effectiveness can be compromised by improper use, breakage, or slippage. With typical use, male condoms are about 85% effective, meaning 15 out of 100 women may become pregnant each year.
Choice D rationale
A diaphragm with spermicide is a barrier method of contraception. The diaphragm is a shallow, dome-shaped cup inserted into the vagina to cover the cervix, and spermicide is applied to kill sperm. Its effectiveness depends on correct and consistent use. With typical use, diaphragms are about 88% effective, meaning 12 out of 100 women may become pregnant each year. Additionally, diaphragms do not protect against STIs.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The rubella vaccine should not be taken during pregnancy. It is a live attenuated vaccine, and there is a theoretical risk of harm to the developing fetus. Therefore, it is recommended to receive the vaccine before pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
The rubella vaccine is not recommended during each pregnancy. It is typically given as part of the MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine series in childhood, and immunity is usually lifelong. A booster dose is not needed during each pregnancy.
Choice C rationale
The rubella vaccine is not related to the Rh status of the baby. The vaccine is given to prevent rubella infection, which can cause serious birth defects if contracted during pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
The correct statement is that the client should avoid pregnancy for 28 days after receiving the rubella vaccine. This is to ensure that the live attenuated virus does not pose a risk to a developing fetus.