The nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a patient with thrombocytopenia associated with ITP. Which result would concern the nurse the most?
Red blood cells (RBCs) 5.0 million/mm3 (F 4.2-5.4; M 4.7-6.1)
Hemoglobin 14.5 g/100 mL (F 12-16: M 14-18)
Platelets 50,000/mm3 (150.000-400,000)
White blood cells (WBCs) 7,400/mm3 (5,000-10,000)
The Correct Answer is C
A. Red blood cells (RBCs) 5.0 million/mm³ (F 4.2–5.4; M 4.7–6.1): This RBC count is within normal limits and does not indicate a concern related to thrombocytopenia.
B. Hemoglobin 14.5 g/100 mL (F 12–16; M 14–18): Hemoglobin is within normal limits and is not an immediate concern for a patient with ITP, as thrombocytopenia primarily affects platelets, not hemoglobin levels.
C. Platelets 50,000/mm³ (150,000–400,000): A platelet count of 50,000/mm³ is significantly below the normal range and poses a risk for bleeding, which is the primary concern in ITP (immune thrombocytopenic purpura).
D. White blood cells (WBCs) 7,400/mm³ (5,000–10,000): The WBC count is normal and not directly related to thrombocytopenia in ITP, which specifically affects platelets.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs." Aplastic anemia is characterized by the failure of bone marrow to produce adequate red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells, and platelets. This results in pancytopenia, which increases the risk of infections, anemia, and bleeding.
B. "Aplastic anemia is directly related to impaired liver function." Aplastic anemia is not related to liver function; it originates from the bone marrow’s inability to produce sufficient blood cells.
C. "Aplastic anemia is associated with the decreased intake of iron." Aplastic anemia is not caused by iron deficiency; it is primarily due to bone marrow failure. Iron deficiency anemia, on the other hand, results from a lack of iron intake or absorption.
D. "Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction." Increased RBC destruction is characteristic of hemolytic anemia, not aplastic anemia.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The spleen is the primary site for platelet destruction. In ITP, the spleen often sequesters and destroys platelets, leading to low platelet levels. Removing the spleen reduces platelet destruction and can help increase platelet counts in affected patients.
B. The spleen is at risk for infection due to the critical loss of WBCs. While infection risk increases after splenectomy, this is not the rationale for the procedure. The spleen does play a role in immune function, but splenectomy is indicated for reducing platelet destruction, not infection prevention.
C. Your spleen is making too many platelets. The spleen does not produce platelets; rather, it filters and sometimes destroys them, particularly in ITP. This choice does not accurately reflect the pathophysiology of ITP.
D. The spleen causes an overabundance of immature platelets. The spleen does not cause an increase in immature platelets. In ITP, platelets are destroyed, not overproduced.