The nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a patient with thrombocytopenia associated with ITP. Which result would concern the nurse the most?
Red blood cells (RBCs) 5.0 million/mm3 (F 4.2-5.4; M 4.7-6.1)
Hemoglobin 14.5 g/100 mL (F 12-16: M 14-18)
Platelets 50,000/mm3 (150.000-400,000)
White blood cells (WBCs) 7,400/mm3 (5,000-10,000)
The Correct Answer is C
A. Red blood cells (RBCs) 5.0 million/mm³ (F 4.2–5.4; M 4.7–6.1): This RBC count is within normal limits and does not indicate a concern related to thrombocytopenia.
B. Hemoglobin 14.5 g/100 mL (F 12–16; M 14–18): Hemoglobin is within normal limits and is not an immediate concern for a patient with ITP, as thrombocytopenia primarily affects platelets, not hemoglobin levels.
C. Platelets 50,000/mm³ (150,000–400,000): A platelet count of 50,000/mm³ is significantly below the normal range and poses a risk for bleeding, which is the primary concern in ITP (immune thrombocytopenic purpura).
D. White blood cells (WBCs) 7,400/mm³ (5,000–10,000): The WBC count is normal and not directly related to thrombocytopenia in ITP, which specifically affects platelets.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Have the patient take a number and stay in the waiting area. Delaying care could lead to worsening of a potentially life-threatening bleeding episode. Hemophilia patients should be assessed promptly.
B. Place the patient in an examination room immediately and notify the physician of a potential bleeding crisis. Hemophilia patients are at risk of internal bleeding, which may not always be visible externally. Rapid assessment is essential to prevent complications from internal bleeding.
C. Send the patient for routine x-rays to locate the source of bleeding and place him in an examination room. X-rays may not immediately detect bleeding in soft tissues. The physician should evaluate the patient first.
D. Palpate the suspected area of bleeding for tenderness and edema. Palpating could worsen bleeding or cause pain, and the nurse should focus on ensuring the patient is seen promptly by the physician.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The spleen is the primary site for platelet destruction. In ITP, the spleen often sequesters and destroys platelets, leading to low platelet levels. Removing the spleen reduces platelet destruction and can help increase platelet counts in affected patients.
B. The spleen is at risk for infection due to the critical loss of WBCs. While infection risk increases after splenectomy, this is not the rationale for the procedure. The spleen does play a role in immune function, but splenectomy is indicated for reducing platelet destruction, not infection prevention.
C. Your spleen is making too many platelets. The spleen does not produce platelets; rather, it filters and sometimes destroys them, particularly in ITP. This choice does not accurately reflect the pathophysiology of ITP.
D. The spleen causes an overabundance of immature platelets. The spleen does not cause an increase in immature platelets. In ITP, platelets are destroyed, not overproduced.