The nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a patient with thrombocytopenia associated with ITP. Which result would concern the nurse the most?
Red blood cells (RBCs) 5.0 million/mm3 (F 4.2-5.4; M 4.7-6.1)
Hemoglobin 14.5 g/100 mL (F 12-16: M 14-18)
Platelets 50,000/mm3 (150.000-400,000)
White blood cells (WBCs) 7,400/mm3 (5,000-10,000)
The Correct Answer is C
A. Red blood cells (RBCs) 5.0 million/mm³ (F 4.2–5.4; M 4.7–6.1): This RBC count is within normal limits and does not indicate a concern related to thrombocytopenia.
B. Hemoglobin 14.5 g/100 mL (F 12–16; M 14–18): Hemoglobin is within normal limits and is not an immediate concern for a patient with ITP, as thrombocytopenia primarily affects platelets, not hemoglobin levels.
C. Platelets 50,000/mm³ (150,000–400,000): A platelet count of 50,000/mm³ is significantly below the normal range and poses a risk for bleeding, which is the primary concern in ITP (immune thrombocytopenic purpura).
D. White blood cells (WBCs) 7,400/mm³ (5,000–10,000): The WBC count is normal and not directly related to thrombocytopenia in ITP, which specifically affects platelets.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs." Aplastic anemia is characterized by the failure of bone marrow to produce adequate red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells, and platelets. This results in pancytopenia, which increases the risk of infections, anemia, and bleeding.
B. "Aplastic anemia is directly related to impaired liver function." Aplastic anemia is not related to liver function; it originates from the bone marrow’s inability to produce sufficient blood cells.
C. "Aplastic anemia is associated with the decreased intake of iron." Aplastic anemia is not caused by iron deficiency; it is primarily due to bone marrow failure. Iron deficiency anemia, on the other hand, results from a lack of iron intake or absorption.
D. "Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction." Increased RBC destruction is characteristic of hemolytic anemia, not aplastic anemia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. 2 hr: While some patients may tolerate faster infusion rates, the maximum safe time is 4 hours, and there is no requirement to complete it in 2 hours.
B. 8 hr: Blood cannot be left out for 8 hours due to the increased risk of bacterial growth and contamination.
C. 6 hr: Infusing blood over 6 hours exceeds the safe time limit and poses a risk of bacterial contamination.
D. 4 hr: To reduce the risk of bacterial contamination, a unit of packed RBCs must be transfused within 4 hours of starting the infusion. This time frame ensures that the blood remains safe for the patient while minimizing exposure to room temperature.