The nurse is providing care to a postpartum patient after an emergency cesarean due to eclampsia. The patient received spinal anesthesia before delivery. Magnesium sulfate is infusing 2 g/hr in 100 mL of IV fluid.
Which assessment finding will cause the nurse to administer calcium gluconate to the patient via IV push?
Respiratory rate is 18 breaths/min.
Urinary output remains at 30 mL/hr.
Patella reflexes are rated at one.
Serum magnesium level is 10 mg/dL. . .
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min is normal and does not indicate magnesium toxicity or the need for calcium gluconate.
Choice B rationale
Urinary output of 30 mL/hr is within the acceptable range and does not suggest magnesium toxicity. This indicates adequate renal function.
Choice C rationale
Patellar reflexes rated at one indicate mild hyporeflexia, which can be a side effect of magnesium sulfate but does not necessitate immediate intervention.
Choice D rationale
Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dL is significantly elevated, indicating magnesium toxicity. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium toxicity and should be administered
promptly to prevent severe complications.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Induction timing is secondary to assessing readiness. The Bishop score determines cervical favorability for induction success.
Choice B rationale
The Bishop score assesses cervical readiness for labor induction, which is vital in planning an effective induction.
Choice C rationale
Refusal to induce without considering clinical data is inappropriate. The Bishop score evaluation determines readiness.
Choice D rationale
Prostaglandin preparation follows Bishop score assessment to ensure induction safety and efficacy.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the
likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.
Choice B rationale
A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications
associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.
Choice C rationale
A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to
complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.
Choice D rationale
A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative
risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .