The nurse is providing care to a postpartum patient after an emergency cesarean due to eclampsia. The patient received spinal anesthesia before delivery. Magnesium sulfate is infusing 2 g/hr in 100 mL of IV fluid.
Which assessment finding will cause the nurse to administer calcium gluconate to the patient via IV push?
Respiratory rate is 18 breaths/min.
Urinary output remains at 30 mL/hr.
Patella reflexes are rated at one.
Serum magnesium level is 10 mg/dL. . .
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min is normal and does not indicate magnesium toxicity or the need for calcium gluconate.
Choice B rationale
Urinary output of 30 mL/hr is within the acceptable range and does not suggest magnesium toxicity. This indicates adequate renal function.
Choice C rationale
Patellar reflexes rated at one indicate mild hyporeflexia, which can be a side effect of magnesium sulfate but does not necessitate immediate intervention.
Choice D rationale
Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dL is significantly elevated, indicating magnesium toxicity. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium toxicity and should be administered
promptly to prevent severe complications.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Reporting abnormal findings to the obstetrician is unnecessary because an increase in the Bishop score from 4 to 10 indicates successful cervical ripening and readiness for labor
induction.
Choice B rationale
Placing the client on her side is not directly related to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. It may be considered for comfort during labor.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring for the onset of labor is appropriate since the increase in the Bishop score to 10 suggests that the cervix is favorable for labor. Continuous monitoring is essential to detect
the onset and progression of labor.
Choice D rationale
Performing nitrazine analysis of amniotic fluid is not relevant to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. This test is typically used to confirm the presence of amniotic
fluid in cases of suspected rupture of membranes.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A low transverse uterine scar is considered the safest type of uterine incision for a VBAC because it is less likely to rupture compared to other types of scars. Therefore, a low transverse uterine scar would not disqualify the patient for VBAC.
Choice B rationale
Patient asking multiple questions does not disqualify her for VBAC. Patient education and ensuring the patient’s understanding and agreement with the procedure is an essential part of the process.
Choice C rationale
Induction of labor in the first pregnancy does not automatically disqualify a patient from attempting VBAC. The success of VBAC depends on multiple factors including the reason for the initial cesarean section.
Choice D rationale
A cesarean due to pelvic abnormalities would disqualify the patient for VBAC because the underlying pelvic condition that necessitated the initial cesarean section is likely still present and would increase the risk of complications during vaginal birth.