The nurse is providing care to a postpartum patient after an emergency cesarean due to eclampsia. The patient received spinal anesthesia before delivery. Magnesium sulfate is infusing 2 g/hr in 100 mL of IV fluid.
Which assessment finding will cause the nurse to administer calcium gluconate to the patient via IV push?
Respiratory rate is 18 breaths/min.
Urinary output remains at 30 mL/hr.
Patella reflexes are rated at one.
Serum magnesium level is 10 mg/dL. . .
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min is normal and does not indicate magnesium toxicity or the need for calcium gluconate.
Choice B rationale
Urinary output of 30 mL/hr is within the acceptable range and does not suggest magnesium toxicity. This indicates adequate renal function.
Choice C rationale
Patellar reflexes rated at one indicate mild hyporeflexia, which can be a side effect of magnesium sulfate but does not necessitate immediate intervention.
Choice D rationale
Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dL is significantly elevated, indicating magnesium toxicity. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium toxicity and should be administered
promptly to prevent severe complications.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A low transverse uterine scar is considered the safest type of uterine incision for a VBAC because it is less likely to rupture compared to other types of scars. Therefore, a low transverse uterine scar would not disqualify the patient for VBAC.
Choice B rationale
Patient asking multiple questions does not disqualify her for VBAC. Patient education and ensuring the patient’s understanding and agreement with the procedure is an essential part of the process.
Choice C rationale
Induction of labor in the first pregnancy does not automatically disqualify a patient from attempting VBAC. The success of VBAC depends on multiple factors including the reason for the initial cesarean section.
Choice D rationale
A cesarean due to pelvic abnormalities would disqualify the patient for VBAC because the underlying pelvic condition that necessitated the initial cesarean section is likely still present and would increase the risk of complications during vaginal birth.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Numbness in the toes and heel might suggest nerve involvement but is not a typical sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which involves the veins, not nerves.
Choice B rationale
Pain relieved by dorsiflexion (positive Homan's sign) is not reliable for diagnosing DVT. This symptom is outdated and not considered a definitive sign.
Choice C rationale
Spider-like and purple veins suggest superficial varicose veins, not deep vein thrombosis, which affects deeper veins and presents differently.
Choice D rationale
Swelling, redness, and warmth in the calf are classic signs of DVT due to the inflammation and obstruction of deep veins. These symptoms should prompt immediate medical evaluation and intervention. .