The nurse is preparing to discharge a client newly prescribed a progestin-only pill (POP) for contraceptive prevention. Which contraindication associated with POP would the nurse alert the healthcare provider?
The client has a BMI of >30
The client is currently taking Ginger
The client has a history of hypertension
The client has no intention of conceiving within the year
The Correct Answer is C
A. A BMI greater than 30 is a consideration, but it is not an absolute contraindication for the use of POPs.
B. Ginger does not interact adversely with progestin-only pills and is not a contraindication.
C. A history of hypertension can increase the risk of cardiovascular events, and while POPs are generally safer than combined hormonal contraceptives for women with hypertension, it should still be monitored and reported to the healthcare provider.
D. Having no intention of conceiving is not a contraindication; in fact, it is a common reason for using contraceptive methods like POPs.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
A. Decongestants are commonly used to relieve nasal congestion in upper respiratory tract infections by constricting blood vessels in the nasal passages.
B. Expectorants help thin mucus and are used in upper respiratory conditions to facilitate coughing up mucus.
C. H2 antagonists are primarily used to reduce stomach acid and are not indicated for upper respiratory conditions.
D. Short-acting beta agonists (SABAs) are primarily used in the management of lower respiratory tract conditions, such as asthma and COPD, rather than upper respiratory conditions.
E. H1 antagonists (antihistamines) are effective for treating allergic reactions and symptoms of upper respiratory infections, such as runny nose and sneezing.
F. Long-acting beta agonists (LABAs) are also used primarily for lower respiratory tract conditions and are not appropriate for treating upper respiratory issues.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Nystatin is an antifungal medication used to treat oral candidiasis (thrush), which is consistent with the client's symptoms of soreness in the mouth and the presence of a white, milky plaque that does not rub off.
B. Amoxicillin is an antibiotic that treats bacterial infections but would not be effective against fungal infections like oral thrush.
C. Metronidazole is an antibiotic and antiprotozoal medication, which is not appropriate for treating oral candidiasis.
D. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat infections caused by certain viruses, such as herpes, and is not effective for fungal infections like thrush.