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The nurse is preparing to discharge a client newly prescribed a progestin-only pill (POP) for contraceptive prevention. Which contraindication associated with POP would the nurse alert the healthcare provider?

A.

The client has a BMI of >30

B.

The client is currently taking Ginger

C.

The client has a history of hypertension

D.

The client has no intention of conceiving within the year

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. A BMI greater than 30 is a consideration, but it is not an absolute contraindication for the use of POPs.  

 

B. Ginger does not interact adversely with progestin-only pills and is not a contraindication.  

 

C. A history of hypertension can increase the risk of cardiovascular events, and while POPs are generally safer than combined hormonal contraceptives for women with hypertension, it should still be monitored and reported to the healthcare provider.  

 

D. Having no intention of conceiving is not a contraindication; in fact, it is a common reason for using contraceptive methods like POPs.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that is often used in hypertension management but is not considered a first-line treatment.

B. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is a first-line treatment for hypertension due to its effectiveness and safety profile, making it a common choice for initial therapy.

C. Doxazosin is an alpha-1 blocker that can be used for hypertension but is not typically a first-line treatment due to the risk of side effects like hypotension.

D. Clonidine is a central alpha agonist used in certain situations for hypertension but is not considered a first-line therapy due to potential adverse effects and sedation.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Epinephrine is primarily used for anaphylaxis and severe asthma attacks; it is not effective in reversing opioid overdose.

B. Protamine is an antidote for heparin, not for opioid overdose.

C. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is not indicated for opioid overdose; it can potentially precipitate seizures in patients with mixed drug overdoses.

D. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist specifically indicated for reversing the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario.

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