The nurse is preparing to discharge a client newly prescribed a progestin-only pill (POP) for contraceptive prevention. Which contraindication associated with POP would the nurse alert the healthcare provider?
The client has a BMI of >30
The client is currently taking Ginger
The client has a history of hypertension
The client has no intention of conceiving within the year
The Correct Answer is C
A. A BMI greater than 30 is a consideration, but it is not an absolute contraindication for the use of POPs.
B. Ginger does not interact adversely with progestin-only pills and is not a contraindication.
C. A history of hypertension can increase the risk of cardiovascular events, and while POPs are generally safer than combined hormonal contraceptives for women with hypertension, it should still be monitored and reported to the healthcare provider.
D. Having no intention of conceiving is not a contraindication; in fact, it is a common reason for using contraceptive methods like POPs.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Lithium is not considered addictive in the traditional sense, and it does not need to be discontinued after six months unless clinically indicated.
B. Diuretics are generally avoided in patients taking lithium due to the risk of lithium toxicity from altered renal clearance, rather than being a routine prescription for difficulty urinating.
C. Close monitoring of lithium levels is crucial to avoid toxicity and ensure therapeutic efficacy, making this statement correct and essential for the patient’s education.
D. While weight gain can occur with lithium therapy, it is not an indicator of lithium toxicity; symptoms of toxicity include nausea, tremors, and confusion rather than weight gain.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections and is not effective against parasitic infections such as pinworms.
B. Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used primarily for HIV treatment and does not target pinworms.
C. Ketoconazole is an antifungal medication that is not indicated for treating pinworm infections.
D. Mebendazole is an anthelmintic medication specifically used to treat pinworm infections by inhibiting the metabolism of the parasite, making it the appropriate choice for this client.