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The nurse is preparing to discharge a client newly prescribed a progestin-only pill (POP) for contraceptive prevention. Which contraindication associated with POP would the nurse alert the healthcare provider?

A.

The client has a BMI of >30

B.

The client is currently taking Ginger

C.

The client has a history of hypertension

D.

The client has no intention of conceiving within the year

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. A BMI greater than 30 is a consideration, but it is not an absolute contraindication for the use of POPs.  

 

B. Ginger does not interact adversely with progestin-only pills and is not a contraindication.  

 

C. A history of hypertension can increase the risk of cardiovascular events, and while POPs are generally safer than combined hormonal contraceptives for women with hypertension, it should still be monitored and reported to the healthcare provider.  

 

D. Having no intention of conceiving is not a contraindication; in fact, it is a common reason for using contraceptive methods like POPs.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. While hormonal contraceptives can affect blood pressure, the risk of significant hypertension is less immediate than thromboembolism.

B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding can occur but is generally not as serious as thromboembolism and may resolve with continued use.

C. Combination birth control pills increase the risk of thromboembolic events, such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism, making it essential to monitor for signs of these complications.

D. Osteoporosis is a long-term concern but is not an acute effect of combination birth control pills; monitoring for thromboembolism is more critical.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. While maintaining blood pressure within the expected range is important, it does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of sertraline, which is an antidepressant.

B. Weight gain can occur with some antidepressants, but it is not a direct indicator of their effectiveness.

C. An increase in mood is a primary goal of treatment with sertraline, and reporting this improvement suggests that the medication is having a positive effect.

D. The absence of swollen legs is not a relevant indicator for assessing the effectiveness of sertraline, as it does not relate to mood or depression symptoms.

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