The nurse is preparing to discharge a client newly prescribed a progestin-only pill (POP) for contraceptive prevention. Which contraindication associated with POP would the nurse alert the healthcare provider?
The client has a BMI of >30
The client is currently taking Ginger
The client has a history of hypertension
The client has no intention of conceiving within the year
The Correct Answer is C
A. A BMI greater than 30 is a consideration, but it is not an absolute contraindication for the use of POPs.
B. Ginger does not interact adversely with progestin-only pills and is not a contraindication.
C. A history of hypertension can increase the risk of cardiovascular events, and while POPs are generally safer than combined hormonal contraceptives for women with hypertension, it should still be monitored and reported to the healthcare provider.
D. Having no intention of conceiving is not a contraindication; in fact, it is a common reason for using contraceptive methods like POPs.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
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B. Palliative therapy is intended for symptom relief, often in cases where curing the disease is not the goal.
C. Maintenance therapy is designed to maintain health stability rather than to treat suspected infections without lab confirmation.
D. Empiric therapy involves starting treatment based on clinical judgment before lab results are available. This approach is useful to manage infections promptly when waiting for cultures could delay necessary care.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
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C. Six hours is insufficient time to ensure the medication is cleared from the system, considering the potential risks.
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