The nurse is preparing to assess the posterior spine of a client. Which landmark should the nurse use to determine symmetry?
Posterior superior iliac spine
Iliac crests
Paravertebral muscles
Twelfth thoracic vertebrae
The Correct Answer is B
A) Posterior superior iliac spine: While this landmark is useful for certain assessments, it is more commonly used to identify pelvic alignment rather than symmetry of the spine itself.
B) Iliac crests: The iliac crests serve as an important anatomical landmark for assessing symmetry in the posterior spine. By comparing the heights of the iliac crests on both sides, the nurse can determine any asymmetry in the pelvis and, by extension, the spine, as uneven heights may indicate spinal deformities.
C) Paravertebral muscles: While assessing the paravertebral muscles can provide information about muscle tone and potential asymmetries, they are not direct landmarks for evaluating overall spinal symmetry.
D) Twelfth thoracic vertebrae: Although identifying specific vertebrae is important for certain assessments, the twelfth thoracic vertebra is not commonly used as a primary landmark for assessing symmetry in the spine. It is more useful for locating the general area of the thoracic spine.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Motor component of IV (Trochlear): The trochlear nerve primarily controls the superior oblique muscle of the eye, which is responsible for downward and lateral eye movements. The findings described do not relate to eye movement and therefore do not indicate dysfunction of this nerve.
B) Motor and sensory components of XI (Accessory): The accessory nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, primarily affecting head rotation and shoulder elevation. The symptoms noted in the assessment do not pertain to these muscle functions, so this option is not correct.
C) Motor component of VII (Facial): The signs of asymmetry in frowning, uneven eyebrow lifting, sagging eyelids, and air escaping when puffing the cheeks are characteristic of dysfunction in the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). This nerve controls the muscles of facial expression, and impairment would lead to the described asymmetrical movements.
D) Motor component of X (Vagus) and sensory component of XII (Hypoglossal): The vagus nerve affects autonomic functions and some swallowing muscles, while the hypoglossal nerve controls tongue movements. Neither nerve is primarily responsible for the facial expressions described in the assessment findings, making this option incorrect.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
A) Texture: Assessing the texture of the skin is an important part of a comprehensive skin assessment. It provides insights into the health and hydration status of the skin. Normal skin texture should feel smooth and even, while changes can indicate issues such as dryness or conditions like eczema or psoriasis.
B) Tachypnea: This term refers to an increased respiratory rate and is not a characteristic assessed in the skin. While it can indicate a physiological response to various conditions, it does not relate to skin health or characteristics and therefore is not relevant in this context.
C) Turgor: Skin turgor refers to the elasticity and hydration status of the skin, which can be assessed by pinching the skin. Proper turgor indicates adequate hydration, while decreased turgor can signal dehydration or other health issues. This is an essential component of skin assessment.
D) Temperature: Assessing the temperature of the skin can provide information about circulation and potential inflammation or infection. Normal skin temperature should feel warm and consistent, while variations can suggest underlying conditions such as fever or shock.
E) Tympany: Tympany is a term used in percussion assessments of the abdomen and is not applicable to skin assessment. It refers to a hollow sound produced by tapping on a body surface and does not pertain to skin characteristics.