The nurse is preparing to assess the posterior spine of a client. Which landmark should the nurse use to determine symmetry?
Posterior superior iliac spine
Iliac crests
Paravertebral muscles
Twelfth thoracic vertebrae
The Correct Answer is B
A) Posterior superior iliac spine: While this landmark is useful for certain assessments, it is more commonly used to identify pelvic alignment rather than symmetry of the spine itself.
B) Iliac crests: The iliac crests serve as an important anatomical landmark for assessing symmetry in the posterior spine. By comparing the heights of the iliac crests on both sides, the nurse can determine any asymmetry in the pelvis and, by extension, the spine, as uneven heights may indicate spinal deformities.
C) Paravertebral muscles: While assessing the paravertebral muscles can provide information about muscle tone and potential asymmetries, they are not direct landmarks for evaluating overall spinal symmetry.
D) Twelfth thoracic vertebrae: Although identifying specific vertebrae is important for certain assessments, the twelfth thoracic vertebra is not commonly used as a primary landmark for assessing symmetry in the spine. It is more useful for locating the general area of the thoracic spine.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Occurs only in the clinical area: Focused assessments can be conducted in various settings, including outpatient clinics, home health visits, and emergency departments. Thus, this statement does not accurately define the difference.
B) Involves all body systems: A focused assessment is specifically targeted and does not involve an evaluation of all body systems. Instead, it concentrates on particular areas of concern, making this statement incorrect.
C) Covers the body from head to toe: This describes a comprehensive assessment rather than a focused one. A comprehensive assessment is thorough and covers the entire body, while a focused assessment zeroes in on specific issues or symptoms.
D) More in depth on specific issues: A focused assessment is designed to gather detailed information about particular health problems or concerns rather than providing a broad overview of the patient’s overall health. This targeted approach allows healthcare providers to identify and address specific needs effectively, making this the correct choice.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Eupnea: Eupnea refers to a normal respiratory rate, typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute for adults. Given that the client’s respiratory rate is significantly lower than this range, documenting the finding as eupnea would not accurately reflect the client’s condition.
B) Bradypnea: Bradypnea is defined as a slower-than-normal respiratory rate, usually less than 12 breaths per minute. With the client's rate at 9 breaths per minute, this is an example of bradypnea. It is crucial for the nurse to document this finding accurately, even though the client denies feeling short of breath, as it could indicate an underlying issue requiring further assessment.
C) Tachypnea: Tachypnea indicates a faster-than-normal respiratory rate, typically over 20 breaths per minute. Since the client's respiratory rate is low at 9 breaths per minute, labeling it as tachypnea would be incorrect and misleading.
D) Dyspnea: Dyspnea refers to difficulty or discomfort in breathing. Although the client does not report feeling short of breath, it is essential to note that the low respiratory rate could still lead to respiratory distress, but it does not meet the criteria for dyspnea based on the client's self-report. Therefore, documenting this finding as dyspnea would not be appropriate.