The nurse is preparing to assess the motor function of the client's trigeminal nerve. Which of the following tests would be most appropriate for the nurse to use?
Have the client smile, frown, and puff out their cheeks
Palpate the masseter muscles when the client clenches their teeth
Assess constriction of the client's pupils with direct and indirect light
Ask the patient to turn their head left and right with resistance
The Correct Answer is B
A) Have the client smile, frown, and puff out their cheeks: This test assesses the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII), not the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V). While important for evaluating facial movement, it does not specifically test the motor function of the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for mastication.
B) Palpate the masseter muscles when the client clenches their teeth: This is the correct test for assessing the motor function of the trigeminal nerve. The trigeminal nerve innervates the muscles responsible for chewing, and palpating the masseter muscles during clenching allows the nurse to evaluate muscle strength and function. It provides insight into the motor capabilities associated with this cranial nerve.
C) Assess constriction of the client's pupils with direct and indirect light: This test evaluates the function of the optic nerve (cranial nerve II) and the oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III). It does not assess the trigeminal nerve and is not relevant for this assessment.
D) Ask the patient to turn their head left and right with resistance: This action tests the spinal accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI), which is involved in neck movement. It does not relate to the function of the trigeminal nerve, making it an inappropriate choice for this specific assessment.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Posterior superior iliac spine: While this landmark is useful for certain assessments, it is more commonly used to identify pelvic alignment rather than symmetry of the spine itself.
B) Iliac crests: The iliac crests serve as an important anatomical landmark for assessing symmetry in the posterior spine. By comparing the heights of the iliac crests on both sides, the nurse can determine any asymmetry in the pelvis and, by extension, the spine, as uneven heights may indicate spinal deformities.
C) Paravertebral muscles: While assessing the paravertebral muscles can provide information about muscle tone and potential asymmetries, they are not direct landmarks for evaluating overall spinal symmetry.
D) Twelfth thoracic vertebrae: Although identifying specific vertebrae is important for certain assessments, the twelfth thoracic vertebra is not commonly used as a primary landmark for assessing symmetry in the spine. It is more useful for locating the general area of the thoracic spine.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Safety issues with an unsupervised resident in the lounge area: While there could be safety concerns related to a resident being in a common area at night, the primary outcome expected from continued insomnia would more directly relate to the individual's functioning rather than immediate safety issues.
B) Onset of cardiac dysfunction: While chronic sleep disturbances can contribute to various health problems, including cardiovascular issues, the immediate outcome of insomnia is more likely to be seen in daily functioning rather than a direct onset of cardiac dysfunction.
C) Onset of new underdiagnosed health problems: While ongoing insomnia may exacerbate existing health issues or lead to new ones over time, the most immediate and observable outcome of insomnia would relate to how it affects daily functioning rather than the development of new health problems.
D) The ability to function during the day may be hindered by these episodes: Insomnia typically leads to increased fatigue, decreased alertness, and impaired cognitive function during the day. As a result, the resident's overall ability to engage in daily activities and interact socially may be significantly hindered by their lack of restorative sleep.