The nurse is preparing to assess the motor function of the client's trigeminal nerve. Which of the following tests would be most appropriate for the nurse to use?
Have the client smile, frown, and puff out their cheeks
Palpate the masseter muscles when the client clenches their teeth
Assess constriction of the client's pupils with direct and indirect light
Ask the patient to turn their head left and right with resistance
The Correct Answer is B
A) Have the client smile, frown, and puff out their cheeks: This test assesses the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII), not the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V). While important for evaluating facial movement, it does not specifically test the motor function of the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for mastication.
B) Palpate the masseter muscles when the client clenches their teeth: This is the correct test for assessing the motor function of the trigeminal nerve. The trigeminal nerve innervates the muscles responsible for chewing, and palpating the masseter muscles during clenching allows the nurse to evaluate muscle strength and function. It provides insight into the motor capabilities associated with this cranial nerve.
C) Assess constriction of the client's pupils with direct and indirect light: This test evaluates the function of the optic nerve (cranial nerve II) and the oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III). It does not assess the trigeminal nerve and is not relevant for this assessment.
D) Ask the patient to turn their head left and right with resistance: This action tests the spinal accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI), which is involved in neck movement. It does not relate to the function of the trigeminal nerve, making it an inappropriate choice for this specific assessment.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Left extremity cool to touch, normal pitting edema, with femoral, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2: While this option describes the left extremity and includes some relevant details, it inaccurately uses "normal pitting edema" without specifying the degree of edema clearly. Additionally, it lists the posterior tibial pulse instead of the popliteal, which is more appropriate given the anatomical location.
B) Left lower extremity cool to touch, +2 pitting edema, with femoral, popliteal, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2: This documentation accurately describes the left lower extremity, specifies the degree of edema as "+2," and correctly identifies the relevant pulses as femoral, popliteal, and dorsalis pedis. This terminology is clear and concise, providing a comprehensive assessment of the vascular status.
C) Left lower leg cool to touch, +4 edema with femoral, posterial tibial, dorsalis and pedis pulses normal: This option incorrectly reports the degree of edema as "+4," which indicates severe swelling, not matching the original assessment of "mild edema." It also incorrectly lists the posterior tibial pulse, which should be popliteal.
D) Left lower leg normal cool temperature, slight swelling, femoral, posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses normal: The term "normal cool temperature" is confusing and not standard terminology. Additionally, "slight swelling" lacks specificity regarding the degree of edema, which is important for a clinical assessment. Furthermore, it inaccurately refers to the posterior tibial pulse instead of the popliteal.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Short stature: While body height can play a role in overall musculoskeletal health, short stature is not specifically identified as a risk factor for disc herniation. Other physical characteristics have a more direct impact on spinal issues.
B) Anorexia: Although nutritional status is important for general health, anorexia is not a recognized risk factor for disc herniation. The condition is more related to physical stressors and age rather than dietary habits alone.
C) 39 years of age: Age is a significant risk factor for disc herniation. Most cases occur in adults aged 30 to 50, as degenerative changes in the spine increase vulnerability to herniation. At 39, the client falls within this high-risk age range.
D) Female gender: While certain musculoskeletal conditions may vary by gender, disc herniation does not have a strong gender predisposition. Both men and women are equally affected, making this option less relevant as a specific risk factor.