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The nurse is performing discharge planning for a client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. It would be most important for the plan to include:

A.

using a 23 gauge 1/2 inch needle for subcutaneous insulin.

B.

monitoring the skin for dryness at injection site.

C.

reporting multiple consecutive blood glucose levels over 200 mg/dL.

D.

emphasizing the need to get eyes checked every 3 months.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. While using the correct needle size is important for insulin administration, it is not the most critical aspect of discharge planning. The focus should be on managing blood glucose levels and recognizing when medical intervention is needed.  

 

B. Monitoring the skin for dryness at the injection site is a good practice, but it is not the most urgent issue to address in discharge planning for a newly diagnosed diabetic client.  

 

C. Consistently elevated blood glucose levels above 200 mg/dL may indicate poor control of diabetes and require prompt adjustments in treatment. Teaching the client to recognize and report hyperglycemia is essential to prevent complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).  

 

D. Eye exams are important for long-term diabetes management to monitor for diabetic retinopathy, but every 3 months is excessive. Annual eye exams are typically sufficient unless otherwise indicated by the healthcare provider.


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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Slowing the rate of infusion may provide some temporary relief, but it does not address the underlying issue and may worsen the situation.

B. Applying a warm compress may soothe discomfort but is not the priority action when a burning sensation is reported, which could indicate potential extravasation.

C. Discontinuing the infusion is the best first action to prevent further damage to the tissue and to assess for complications such as infiltration or extravasation.

D. Checking for blood return can help assess the patency of the IV line, but the priority is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent complications.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant commonly used to treat neuropathic pain, including trigeminal neuralgia. It works by stabilizing nerve activity and is appropriate for this condition.

B. Carbamazepine is considered the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia as it decreases nerve impulses, which helps reduce pain. It is a commonly prescribed medication for this condition.

C. Baclofen is a muscle relaxant and can be used in combination with anticonvulsants to treat trigeminal neuralgia by reducing muscle spasms associated with nerve irritation.

D. Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic that treats general pain but is not typically effective for the specific type of neuropathic pain experienced in trigeminal neuralgia. Opioids do not address the underlying nerve activity and are not recommended for long-term management of this condition.

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