The nurse is performing an integumentary system assessment of a patient who has smoked for the last 40 years. The patient has clubbing of the fingernails. What does this finding indicate to the nurse?
The patient has asthma.
The patient has cardiovascular disease.
The patient has emphysema.
The patient has chronic hypoxemia.
The Correct Answer is D
A) The patient has asthma: While asthma can lead to respiratory symptoms and issues, it is not typically associated with clubbing of the fingernails. Asthma primarily affects airway constriction and inflammation, rather than causing the long-term changes in nail morphology seen with clubbing.
B) The patient has cardiovascular disease: Although some cardiovascular conditions can lead to clubbing, it is more commonly associated with chronic lung diseases. Cardiovascular disease might cause other signs or symptoms, but clubbing alone is not a definitive indicator of this condition.
C) The patient has emphysema: Emphysema, a type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), is characterized by the destruction of lung tissue and impaired airflow. While it can contribute to hypoxemia, clubbing is not a common finding specifically associated with emphysema.
D) The patient has chronic hypoxemia: Clubbing of the fingernails is a classic sign of chronic hypoxemia, often resulting from long-term respiratory conditions like COPD, interstitial lung disease, or lung cancer. It indicates a prolonged lack of oxygen in the blood, leading to changes in the nail bed and digit shape. Given the patient's long smoking history, chronic hypoxemia is the most likely explanation for this finding.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Short stature: While body height can play a role in overall musculoskeletal health, short stature is not specifically identified as a risk factor for disc herniation. Other physical characteristics have a more direct impact on spinal issues.
B) Anorexia: Although nutritional status is important for general health, anorexia is not a recognized risk factor for disc herniation. The condition is more related to physical stressors and age rather than dietary habits alone.
C) 39 years of age: Age is a significant risk factor for disc herniation. Most cases occur in adults aged 30 to 50, as degenerative changes in the spine increase vulnerability to herniation. At 39, the client falls within this high-risk age range.
D) Female gender: While certain musculoskeletal conditions may vary by gender, disc herniation does not have a strong gender predisposition. Both men and women are equally affected, making this option less relevant as a specific risk factor.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Inflammation of the lamina of the involved vertebra: While inflammation can contribute to pain, it is not the primary cause in the context of a herniated disc. The pain associated with a herniated disc is typically related to nerve compression rather than inflammation of the lamina itself.
B) Shifting of two adjacent vertebrae out of alignment: This describes a different condition, such as spondylolisthesis. A herniated disc primarily involves the displacement of disc material, rather than a significant misalignment of the vertebrae.
C) Increased pressure of cerebral spinal fluid within the vertebral column: Increased cerebrospinal fluid pressure is not typically associated with herniated discs and does not directly cause the pain related to this condition.
D) Compression of the spinal cord by the extruding disc: This is the most accurate explanation for the patient's pain. A cervical herniated disc can protrude and compress nearby nerve roots or the spinal cord itself, leading to significant pain, weakness, and other neurological symptoms. This compression is the primary cause of pain in patients with this diagnosis.