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The nurse is performing a nutritional assessment. Which of the following would be considered objective data?

A.

Dietary history from the patient

B.

BMI (Body Mass Index)

C.

Patient history of alcohol intake

D.

Patient complaint of weight loss

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Dietary history from the patient: This information is subjective as it relies on the patient’s personal account of their eating habits, which may be influenced by memory or perception. It does not provide measurable data.

 

B) BMI (Body Mass Index): This is an objective measure calculated from a person’s height and weight. It provides quantifiable data that can be used to assess nutritional status and potential health risks associated with body weight.

 

C) Patient history of alcohol intake: This information is subjective as it is based on the patient’s self-report. It does not provide direct evidence and may vary depending on how the patient perceives their alcohol consumption.

 

D) Patient complaint of weight loss: This is also subjective data, as it relies on the patient’s perception of their weight change. It does not provide concrete measurements and can be influenced by various factors such as mood or misunderstanding of the situation.


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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Eupnea: Eupnea refers to a normal respiratory rate, typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute for adults. Given that the client’s respiratory rate is significantly lower than this range, documenting the finding as eupnea would not accurately reflect the client’s condition.

B) Bradypnea: Bradypnea is defined as a slower-than-normal respiratory rate, usually less than 12 breaths per minute. With the client's rate at 9 breaths per minute, this is an example of bradypnea. It is crucial for the nurse to document this finding accurately, even though the client denies feeling short of breath, as it could indicate an underlying issue requiring further assessment.

C) Tachypnea: Tachypnea indicates a faster-than-normal respiratory rate, typically over 20 breaths per minute. Since the client's respiratory rate is low at 9 breaths per minute, labeling it as tachypnea would be incorrect and misleading.


D) Dyspnea: Dyspnea refers to difficulty or discomfort in breathing. Although the client does not report feeling short of breath, it is essential to note that the low respiratory rate could still lead to respiratory distress, but it does not meet the criteria for dyspnea based on the client's self-report. Therefore, documenting this finding as dyspnea would not be appropriate.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Changes in peripheral vision in response to light: While peripheral vision is important in a comprehensive eye assessment, it is not specifically evaluated through the PERRLA acronym. PERRLA focuses on how the pupils respond to light and accommodation, not on peripheral vision changes.

B) Involuntary blinking in the presence of bright light: Involuntary blinking is part of a reflex action known as the blink reflex, which helps protect the eyes from bright lights and foreign objects. However, this response is not what the "A" in PERRLA refers to, which is more specifically about pupillary reactions to focus.

C) Pupillary dilation when looking at a near object: When focusing on a near object, the pupils actually constrict rather than dilate. This process, known as accommodation, is important for clear vision at close distances but does not pertain to the dilation of pupils.

D) Pupillary constriction when looking at a near object: The "A" in PERRLA stands for accommodation, which specifically refers to the pupils constricting when a person looks at a nearby object. This reaction helps the eyes focus properly and is a normal finding in a healthy neurological assessment. Thus, option D accurately describes the "A" in the PERRLA assessment.

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