The nurse is obtaining a systolic blood pressure by palpation. While inflating the cuff, the radial pulse is no longer palpable at 90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take?
Release the manometer valve immediately.
Document the absence of the radial pulse.
Inflate the blood pressure cuff to 120 mm Hg.
Record a palpable systolic pressure of 90 mm Hg.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Releasing the manometer valve immediately is not appropriate as it does not allow for an accurate measurement of systolic blood pressure.
Choice B rationale
Documenting the absence of the radial pulse is not the correct action. The nurse needs to continue the procedure to obtain an accurate systolic blood pressure reading.
Choice C rationale
Inflating the blood pressure cuff to 120 mm Hg is the correct action. The nurse should inflate the cuff 30 mm Hg above the point where the radial pulse is no longer palpable to ensure an accurate measurement.
Choice D rationale
Recording a palpable systolic pressure of 90 mm Hg is incorrect. The nurse needs to inflate the cuff further to obtain an accurate systolic blood pressure reading.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Injecting in the abdominal area at least 2 inches (5.1 cm) from the umbilicus is the correct technique for subcutaneous heparin injections. This reduces the risk of injury to blood vessels and nerves and ensures consistent absorption of the medication.
Choice B rationale
Rotating injections between the abdomen and gluteal areas is not recommended for low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) injections. The abdomen is the preferred site for consistent absorption.
Choice C rationale
Massaging the injection site to increase absorption is not recommended for LMWH injections. Massaging can cause bruising and affect the absorption of the medication.
Choice D rationale
Expelling the air in the prefilled syringe prior to injection is not recommended for LMWH injections. The air bubble helps ensure the entire dose is administered and prevents medication from leaking out.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering PRN oral pain medication without further assessment may not be appropriate, as the client’s pain needs must be fully evaluated before intervening with medication. Pain medication should be administered based on an accurate assessment rather than solely on nonverbal cues.
Choice B rationale
Reviewing the pain medications prescribed is important, particularly if the client is exhibiting signs of uncontrolled pain. However, this intervention should be secondary to further assessment of the client’s current pain status.
Choice C rationale
Administering PRN oral pain medication without further assessment may not be appropriate, as the client’s pain needs must be fully evaluated before intervening with medication. Pain medication should be administered based on an accurate assessment rather than solely on nonverbal cues.
Choice D rationale
Asking the client what is causing the grimacing is the correct intervention to implement first. Nonverbal cues, such as grimacing, can indicate the presence of pain, even if the client denies it verbally. By closely monitoring the client’s nonverbal behavior, the nurse can gather additional information about the client’s pain experience and make appropriate interventions based on a comprehensive assessment.