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The nurse is learning about effective nurse leadership. The nurse should recognize that an effective nurse leader has which of the following qualities? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

A.

Conflict resolution skills

B.

Integrity

C.

Ability to set priorities

D.

Authoritarian leadership style

E.

Resistant to change

Question Solution

Correct Answer : A,B,C

Choice A reason:

Conflict resolution skills are essential for effective nurse leadership. Leaders must be able to manage and resolve conflicts within the team to maintain a positive and productive work environment. Effective conflict resolution promotes teamwork and improves patient care.

 

Choice B reason:

Integrity is a fundamental quality of an effective nurse leader. Leaders with integrity are honest, ethical, and trustworthy. They set a positive example for their team and build a culture of trust and respect.

 

Choice C reason:

The ability to set priorities is crucial for nurse leaders. Effective leaders can identify the most important tasks and allocate resources appropriately. This skill ensures that the team focuses on activities that have the greatest impact on patient care and outcomes.

 

Choice D reason:

An authoritarian leadership style is not characteristic of effective nurse leadership. This style can lead to a lack of collaboration and low team morale. Effective nurse leaders typically use a more collaborative and inclusive approach to leadership.

 

Choice E reason:

Being resistant to change is not a quality of an effective nurse leader. Healthcare is a dynamic field that requires adaptability and openness to new ideas and practices. Effective leaders embrace change and guide their teams through transitions to improve care and outcomes.


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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A: A negative-pressure isolation room

A negative-pressure isolation room is typically used for patients with airborne infections, such as tuberculosis or measles, to prevent the spread of infectious agents through the air. Scabies, however, is primarily transmitted through direct skin-to-skin contact and occasionally through contact with contaminated clothing or bedding. Therefore, a negative-pressure isolation room is not necessary for a scabies patient1.

Choice B: A private room

A private room is the most appropriate choice for a client with scabies. This type of room helps prevent the spread of the infestation to other patients and allows for better control of the environment. Scabies is highly contagious and can spread through direct contact with the infested person or indirectly through contaminated items. Isolating the patient in a private room minimizes the risk of transmission and allows for proper infection control measures to be implemented2.

Choice C: A semi-private room with a client who has pediculosis capitis

Placing a scabies patient in a semi-private room with another patient, even one with a different parasitic infection like pediculosis capitis (head lice), is not advisable. Both conditions are highly contagious, and cohabitation increases the risk of cross-contamination and further spread of both infestations. Each condition requires specific treatment and isolation protocols to effectively manage and prevent outbreaks3.

Choice D: A positive-pressure isolation room

A positive-pressure isolation room is designed to protect immunocompromised patients from external contaminants by ensuring that air flows out of the room rather than in. This type of room is not suitable for a scabies patient, as it does not address the primary mode of transmission for scabies, which is direct contact. The focus for scabies management should be on preventing direct and indirect contact with others4.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment of disease to halt its progression. Examples include screening tests and early interventions. Advising a client with osteoporosis to consume dairy products is not aimed at early detection but rather at preventing the onset of complications by ensuring adequate calcium intake.

Choice B reason:

Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of disease or injury before it occurs. This includes measures such as vaccinations, lifestyle modifications, and dietary recommendations. Advising a client with osteoporosis to consume three servings of milk or dairy products daily is a primary prevention strategy. It helps to maintain bone density and prevent fractures by ensuring adequate calcium and vitamin D intake.

Choice C reason:

Proactive prevention is not a standard term used in public health or medical practice. The recognized levels of prevention are primary, secondary, and tertiary. Therefore, this option is not applicable in this context.

Choice D reason:

Tertiary prevention focuses on managing and mitigating the effects of an existing disease to prevent further complications and improve quality of life. This includes rehabilitation and ongoing treatment for chronic conditions. While advising a client with osteoporosis to consume dairy products can be part of managing the condition, it is primarily a preventive measure to avoid further bone loss and fractures, aligning more with primary prevention.

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