The nurse is interviewing a client who says. "Today is the two-month anniversary of my wife's death from cancer". Select the most therapeutic response by the nurse
"Would you like to discuss this with the doctor?"
"How long were you married?"
"What type of cancer did your wife have?"
"How does that make you feel?"
The Correct Answer is D
A) "Would you like to discuss this with the doctor?": This response may imply that the nurse is not equipped to handle the emotional aspect of the conversation, potentially minimizing the client's feelings and discouraging further sharing.
B) "How long were you married?": While this question seeks to gather more information, it does not directly address the client's emotional experience or feelings related to their wife's death, which is the primary concern in this context.
C) "What type of cancer did your wife have?": This question may shift the focus to medical details rather than the client's emotional state, which is crucial in a therapeutic conversation about grief and loss.
D) "How does that make you feel?": This response is the most therapeutic as it invites the client to express their emotions and thoughts about their loss. It acknowledges their pain and encourages them to explore their feelings, which is essential for processing grief.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Talking in a loud voice: While this may indicate some level of distress or confusion, it does not necessarily signal a specific neurological deficit. Clients may raise their voice for various reasons unrelated to neurological issues.
B) Grimacing with movement: This could suggest discomfort or pain but is not an explicit indicator of neurological impairment. Grimacing can occur for many reasons, including musculoskeletal issues or emotional responses, and does not specifically necessitate a focused neurological assessment.
C) Asymmetry of the client's smile: This finding is significant and raises concerns about potential neurological issues, such as a stroke or Bell's palsy. Facial asymmetry may indicate weakness or dysfunction in the cranial nerves responsible for facial movement, warranting a more thorough neurological examination to assess for underlying causes.
D) Inability to follow directions: While this may point to confusion or cognitive impairment, it is a more general indicator and could result from various factors, including anxiety or lack of understanding. It does not specifically highlight a localized neurological deficit as clearly as facial asymmetry does.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Left extremity cool to touch, normal pitting edema, with femoral, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2: While this option describes the left extremity and includes some relevant details, it inaccurately uses "normal pitting edema" without specifying the degree of edema clearly. Additionally, it lists the posterior tibial pulse instead of the popliteal, which is more appropriate given the anatomical location.
B) Left lower extremity cool to touch, +2 pitting edema, with femoral, popliteal, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2: This documentation accurately describes the left lower extremity, specifies the degree of edema as "+2," and correctly identifies the relevant pulses as femoral, popliteal, and dorsalis pedis. This terminology is clear and concise, providing a comprehensive assessment of the vascular status.
C) Left lower leg cool to touch, +4 edema with femoral, posterial tibial, dorsalis and pedis pulses normal: This option incorrectly reports the degree of edema as "+4," which indicates severe swelling, not matching the original assessment of "mild edema." It also incorrectly lists the posterior tibial pulse, which should be popliteal.
D) Left lower leg normal cool temperature, slight swelling, femoral, posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses normal: The term "normal cool temperature" is confusing and not standard terminology. Additionally, "slight swelling" lacks specificity regarding the degree of edema, which is important for a clinical assessment. Furthermore, it inaccurately refers to the posterior tibial pulse instead of the popliteal.