The nurse is completing their documentation for the shift. Which of the data is objective? Select all that apply.
Blood pressure 150/90
Bowel sounds present in all 4 quadrants
PERRLA
Anxious about surgical procedure
Dyspnea on exertion
Correct Answer : A,B,C
A) Blood pressure 150/90: This data is objective because it is a measurable value obtained through direct observation using a sphygmomanometer. It provides a quantifiable assessment of the client's cardiovascular status and can be verified by others, making it an important piece of objective data.
B) Bowel sounds present in all 4 quadrants: The assessment of bowel sounds is objective as it involves physical examination techniques that can be observed and documented by the nurse. The presence of bowel sounds indicates gastrointestinal activity, and this finding can be consistently assessed across different healthcare providers.
C) PERRLA: The abbreviation stands for "Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation." This assessment is objective as it involves specific, observable measurements of the client's pupils during an eye examination. It can be consistently evaluated by different healthcare professionals, ensuring reliable documentation.
D) Anxious about surgical procedure: This statement is subjective as it reflects the client's personal feelings and emotional state. While important for understanding the client's experience, it cannot be measured or observed directly by the nurse and relies on the client's self-reporting.
E) Dyspnea on exertion: While dyspnea can be observed, the phrase "on exertion" refers to the client's subjective experience of breathlessness. Although it can be assessed through observation of respiratory patterns, the experience itself is based on the client's interpretation, making it subjective data.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Eupnea: Eupnea refers to a normal respiratory rate, typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute for adults. Given that the client’s respiratory rate is significantly lower than this range, documenting the finding as eupnea would not accurately reflect the client’s condition.
B) Bradypnea: Bradypnea is defined as a slower-than-normal respiratory rate, usually less than 12 breaths per minute. With the client's rate at 9 breaths per minute, this is an example of bradypnea. It is crucial for the nurse to document this finding accurately, even though the client denies feeling short of breath, as it could indicate an underlying issue requiring further assessment.
C) Tachypnea: Tachypnea indicates a faster-than-normal respiratory rate, typically over 20 breaths per minute. Since the client's respiratory rate is low at 9 breaths per minute, labeling it as tachypnea would be incorrect and misleading.
D) Dyspnea: Dyspnea refers to difficulty or discomfort in breathing. Although the client does not report feeling short of breath, it is essential to note that the low respiratory rate could still lead to respiratory distress, but it does not meet the criteria for dyspnea based on the client's self-report. Therefore, documenting this finding as dyspnea would not be appropriate.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Safety issues with an unsupervised resident in the lounge area: While there could be safety concerns related to a resident being in a common area at night, the primary outcome expected from continued insomnia would more directly relate to the individual's functioning rather than immediate safety issues.
B) Onset of cardiac dysfunction: While chronic sleep disturbances can contribute to various health problems, including cardiovascular issues, the immediate outcome of insomnia is more likely to be seen in daily functioning rather than a direct onset of cardiac dysfunction.
C) Onset of new underdiagnosed health problems: While ongoing insomnia may exacerbate existing health issues or lead to new ones over time, the most immediate and observable outcome of insomnia would relate to how it affects daily functioning rather than the development of new health problems.
D) The ability to function during the day may be hindered by these episodes: Insomnia typically leads to increased fatigue, decreased alertness, and impaired cognitive function during the day. As a result, the resident's overall ability to engage in daily activities and interact socially may be significantly hindered by their lack of restorative sleep.