The nurse is caring for a client with a history of hypertension who has experienced uncontrollable non-productive cough related to an ACE inhibitor. Which alternative medication would the nurse anticipate administering?
losartan (Cozaar)
hydralazine HCL (Apresoline)
furosemide (Lasix)
metoprolol (Lopressor)
The Correct Answer is A
A) Losartan (Cozaar): This medication is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) and is often used as an alternative for patients who experience a cough due to ACE inhibitors. Unlike ACE inhibitors, ARBs do not typically cause a cough because they do not affect bradykinin levels, making losartan an appropriate choice for managing hypertension without the adverse effect of a persistent cough.
B) Hydralazine HCL (Apresoline): While hydralazine is an antihypertensive, it works through a different mechanism (direct vasodilation) and is not a first-line alternative for patients with a history of ACE inhibitor-induced cough. It's generally used in specific situations, such as severe hypertension or heart failure.
C) Furosemide (Lasix): This is a loop diuretic primarily used for conditions like heart failure or edema, rather than for the management of hypertension alone. It does not address the underlying hypertension in the same manner as ACE inhibitors or ARBs.
D) Metoprolol (Lopressor): This is a beta-blocker that can be used for hypertension, but it does not directly address the issue of cough related to ACE inhibitors. Switching to a beta-blocker may not be the best option if the client is specifically seeking to avoid the cough associated with ACE inhibitors.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) "This medication decreases chest pain by dissolving blood clots that are occluding the arteries.": This statement is incorrect because nitroglycerin does not dissolve blood clots. Instead, it works by relaxing and dilating blood vessels, which helps improve blood flow to the heart muscle and relieve angina.
B) "Place one tablet under your tongue every 15 minutes and repeat up to 5 times for relief of chest pain.": This is not accurate; while nitroglycerin can be taken sublingually, the typical recommendation is to take one tablet every 5 minutes as needed for chest pain, not every 15 minutes, and not to exceed 3 tablets within 15 minutes.
C) "This medication is the first-line treatment for hypertension.": Although nitroglycerin can lower blood pressure, it is not typically considered a first-line treatment for hypertension. It is primarily used for angina relief rather than as a primary antihypertensive agent.
D) "This medication dilates cardiac blood vessels to deliver more oxygen to the heart.": This statement accurately describes the action of nitroglycerin. By dilating the coronary arteries, nitroglycerin increases blood flow and oxygen delivery to the heart muscle, which helps alleviate angina symptoms. This is a key point to emphasize during patient education.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT): Argatroban is an indirect thrombin inhibitor specifically used for anticoagulation in patients with HIT. This condition involves a significant drop in platelet counts due to heparin therapy, and argatroban is an appropriate alternative for preventing thrombosis in these patients.
B) Ventricular Dysfunction: While managing anticoagulation may be important in patients with ventricular dysfunction, this condition does not specifically necessitate the use of argatroban. Other anticoagulants may be used based on the clinical situation.
C) Myocardial infarction: Although anticoagulation may be warranted in the setting of a myocardial infarction, argatroban is not specifically indicated for this condition. Other antithrombotic therapies, such as aspirin or heparin, are more commonly used.
D) Hepatotoxicity: Argatroban is metabolized in the liver, so caution is warranted in patients with liver dysfunction. Hepatotoxicity itself would not be a reason to use argatroban; rather, it may require close monitoring or adjustment of dosage.