The nurse is caring for a client who tests positive for the sexually transmitted infection (STI) gonorrhea. The client reports having sex with someone who has many partners. Which response should the nurse provide?
Emphasize that using safe sex practices removes the risk of STIs.
Clarify that all STIs are transmitted through sexual intercourse.
Discuss that partners without similar symptoms may not be infected.
Teach the importance of medication regimen and follow-up protocol.
The Correct Answer is D
A. While safe sex practices can reduce the risk of STIs, they do not eliminate the risk entirely, especially in cases where partners have multiple sexual partners.
B. Not all STIs are transmitted solely through sexual intercourse; some can be transmitted through other means, making this statement overly simplistic.
C. It's important to note that asymptomatic individuals can still be carriers of STIs, so this statement may give a false sense of security.
D. Teaching the importance of adhering to the medication regimen and ensuring follow-up appointments is critical in managing gonorrhea effectively and preventing complications or reinfection. This approach emphasizes the importance of treatment compliance and ongoing health management.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Joint pain is a common symptom of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and, while it may indicate an exacerbation of the disease, it is not the most critical finding to report.
B. A low-grade fever can signify an infection or increased disease activity but is generally not as urgent as changes in renal function or systemic involvement.
C. Muscle atrophy is a concern over time but does not pose an immediate threat to the client’s health compared to acute changes in kidney function.
D. Hematuria is significant in SLE as it can indicate renal involvement, such as lupus nephritis, which can lead to severe complications. This finding requires prompt reporting and assessment to prevent further renal damage and manage potential complications effectively.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Internal bleeding typically presents with signs of hypovolemia, such as decreased blood pressure and increased heart rate, rather than pitting edema and jugular venous distention.
B. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by fluid overload, leading to symptoms like pitting edema in the extremities and jugular venous distention, which align with the findings observed in this client.
C. Left ventricular dysfunction primarily results in pulmonary congestion and respiratory distress rather than peripheral edema and jugular venous distention.
D. Cardiac tamponade may present with jugular venous distention, but it usually also involves hypotension and muffled heart sounds, which are not described in this scenario.