The nurse is caring for a client who tests positive for the sexually transmitted infection (STI) gonorrhea. The client reports having sex with someone who has many partners. Which response should the nurse provide?
Emphasize that using safe sex practices removes the risk of STIs.
Clarify that all STIs are transmitted through sexual intercourse.
Discuss that partners without similar symptoms may not be infected.
Teach the importance of medication regimen and follow-up protocol.
The Correct Answer is D
A. While safe sex practices can reduce the risk of STIs, they do not eliminate the risk entirely, especially in cases where partners have multiple sexual partners.
B. Not all STIs are transmitted solely through sexual intercourse; some can be transmitted through other means, making this statement overly simplistic.
C. It's important to note that asymptomatic individuals can still be carriers of STIs, so this statement may give a false sense of security.
D. Teaching the importance of adhering to the medication regimen and ensuring follow-up appointments is critical in managing gonorrhea effectively and preventing complications or reinfection. This approach emphasizes the importance of treatment compliance and ongoing health management.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While frequent mouth care is important, it is not the most immediate concern during an active seizure. The priority is to maintain airway patency and prevent aspiration.
B. Maintaining a semi-Fowler's position may be beneficial, but the client’s level of consciousness and the presence of seizures require more immediate interventions focused on airway management.
C. Ensuring oral suction is available is essential for the client who is unconscious and experiencing seizures, as it allows for rapid intervention to clear secretions and prevent aspiration, which is critical for airway protection.
D. Keeping the room at a comfortable temperature is important for the overall comfort of the client, but it does not directly address the acute management of seizures and airway concerns.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Administering opioid and non-opioid medications together is an effective pain management strategy for severe pain. This approach can provide better pain relief by targeting different pain pathways and may reduce the total dosage of opioids needed, thus minimizing side effects.
B. Alternating IV and IM analgesic medications is not the best approach; instead, consistent pain management is necessary to keep pain levels under control.
C. Waiting until the pain score reaches 10 before administering the maximum dosage is inappropriate and could lead to inadequate pain control. Pain management should be proactive, not reactive.
D. While educating the client on narcotic dependency is important, it is not the priority intervention in this acute situation where pain control is essential. The immediate focus should be on effective pain relief.