The nurse is caring for a client who tests positive for the sexually transmitted infection (STI) gonorrhea. The client reports having sex with someone who has many partners. Which response should the nurse provide?
Emphasize that using safe sex practices removes the risk of STIs.
Clarify that all STIs are transmitted through sexual intercourse.
Discuss that partners without similar symptoms may not be infected.
Teach the importance of medication regimen and follow-up protocol.
The Correct Answer is D
A. While safe sex practices can reduce the risk of STIs, they do not eliminate the risk entirely, especially in cases where partners have multiple sexual partners.
B. Not all STIs are transmitted solely through sexual intercourse; some can be transmitted through other means, making this statement overly simplistic.
C. It's important to note that asymptomatic individuals can still be carriers of STIs, so this statement may give a false sense of security.
D. Teaching the importance of adhering to the medication regimen and ensuring follow-up appointments is critical in managing gonorrhea effectively and preventing complications or reinfection. This approach emphasizes the importance of treatment compliance and ongoing health management.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Clear, dark amber-colored urine may indicate dehydration or concentrated urine, which does not necessarily signify improvement in liver function or treatment efficacy.
B. A prothrombin time within normal limits may indicate improved liver function; however, it is not the primary goal of the treatment plan focused on managing ascites and fluid retention in cirrhosis.
C. Decreased abdominal girth is a key indicator of progress in managing fluid retention associated with cirrhosis, as the treatment plan aims to reduce ascites through a low sodium diet and albumin infusions.
D. Improved level of consciousness is essential for overall recovery but is not the primary measure of progress related to fluid management and treatment effects in this context.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Latent hepatitis C is not an absolute contraindication for peritoneal dialysis, and patients with this condition can often undergo dialysis with appropriate precautions.
B. Crohn's disease with a history of colectomy poses a risk for peritoneal dialysis due to potential intra-abdominal adhesions and infection, which can complicate the procedure and increase the risk of peritonitis.
C. A history of nephrotic syndrome does not contraindicate peritoneal dialysis; patients with nephrotic syndrome may still be candidates depending on their overall kidney function and health status.
D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is a common condition among patients needing dialysis and does not preclude the use of peritoneal dialysis, as long as blood sugar levels are managed effectively.