The nurse is caring for a client who tests positive for the sexually transmitted infection (STI) gonorrhea. The client reports having sex with someone who has many partners. Which response should the nurse provide?
Emphasize that using safe sex practices removes the risk of STIs.
Clarify that all STIs are transmitted through sexual intercourse.
Discuss that partners without similar symptoms may not be infected.
Teach the importance of medication regimen and follow-up protocol.
The Correct Answer is D
A. While safe sex practices can reduce the risk of STIs, they do not eliminate the risk entirely, especially in cases where partners have multiple sexual partners.
B. Not all STIs are transmitted solely through sexual intercourse; some can be transmitted through other means, making this statement overly simplistic.
C. It's important to note that asymptomatic individuals can still be carriers of STIs, so this statement may give a false sense of security.
D. Teaching the importance of adhering to the medication regimen and ensuring follow-up appointments is critical in managing gonorrhea effectively and preventing complications or reinfection. This approach emphasizes the importance of treatment compliance and ongoing health management.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Immediately after the patient has been medicated for pain.
While pain relief may help, education should be conducted when the patient is alert and comfortable, not immediately after pain medication when they may be drowsy.
B. The last thing in the evening, after visitors have left, before bedtime. Education right before bedtime may not be effective if the patient is tired, as retention and attention may be reduced.
C. When the patient is comfortable and receptive to the patient education.
Teaching should occur when the patient is comfortable, alert, and receptive to ensure they can retain and understand the information.
D. Just before the patient is discharged, so the information is current.
Waiting until discharge could overwhelm the patient, and they may not have time to ask questions or clarify information.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic used for moderate to severe pain management but is not typically the first-line medication in acute coronary syndrome scenarios.
B. Fentanyl is a potent opioid that may be used for severe pain; however, morphine is more commonly used in emergency situations for chest pain related to potential myocardial infarction.
C. Morphine is commonly used in emergency departments for the management of acute chest pain, particularly when associated with myocardial ischemia. It helps reduce pain and anxiety, lowers myocardial oxygen demand, and has vasodilatory effects that can alleviate the burden on the heart.
D. Hydromorphone is another opioid analgesic but is not usually the preferred choice for chest pain in the acute setting compared to morphine.