The nurse is caring for a client who suffers from frequent blood clots and is currently taking argatroban. Which of the following conditions in the client's medical history would require them to take argatroban?
Heparin induced thrombocytopenia.
Ventricular Dysfunction
Myocardial infarction
Hepatotoxicity
The Correct Answer is A
A) Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT): Argatroban is an indirect thrombin inhibitor specifically used for anticoagulation in patients with HIT. This condition involves a significant drop in platelet counts due to heparin therapy, and argatroban is an appropriate alternative for preventing thrombosis in these patients.
B) Ventricular Dysfunction: While managing anticoagulation may be important in patients with ventricular dysfunction, this condition does not specifically necessitate the use of argatroban. Other anticoagulants may be used based on the clinical situation.
C) Myocardial infarction: Although anticoagulation may be warranted in the setting of a myocardial infarction, argatroban is not specifically indicated for this condition. Other antithrombotic therapies, such as aspirin or heparin, are more commonly used.
D) Hepatotoxicity: Argatroban is metabolized in the liver, so caution is warranted in patients with liver dysfunction. Hepatotoxicity itself would not be a reason to use argatroban; rather, it may require close monitoring or adjustment of dosage.
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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
A) Angioedema: Quinapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause angioedema, which is a serious allergic reaction characterized by swelling of the deeper layers of the skin. This side effect is critical to monitor, as it can lead to airway obstruction.
B) Dry non-productive cough: A persistent dry cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors like quinapril. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin and can be bothersome enough to require discontinuation of the medication.
C) Hyperkalemia: Quinapril can lead to increased potassium levels in the blood, a condition known as hyperkalemia. This is due to the drug's mechanism of action, which reduces aldosterone secretion, leading to decreased potassium excretion.
D) First dose phenomenon: This refers to a significant drop in blood pressure following the first dose of an ACE inhibitor, which can lead to dizziness or fainting. Patients are often advised to take the first dose at bedtime to minimize this risk.
E) Hypotension: Quinapril can cause hypotension, particularly after the initial dosing or in patients who are dehydrated or on diuretics. It’s important for patients to be aware of this potential side effect.
F) Hypertension: Quinapril is used to treat hypertension, so it is not a side effect associated with this medication. Instead, the goal of treatment is to lower blood pressure, making this option incorrect.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Beta Blockers: While beta blockers can be used to manage some side effects of various medications, they are not typically indicated for managing niacin-induced flushing. Their primary use is in cardiovascular conditions rather than specifically addressing flushing.
B) Calcium Channel Blockers: Calcium channel blockers are primarily used to treat hypertension and certain heart conditions. They do not specifically address the flushing associated with niacin and would not be the expected choice for this side effect.
C) NSAIDs: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can be effective in managing niacin-induced flushing. Administering an NSAID, such as ibuprofen, prior to taking niacin can help reduce the flushing response by inhibiting the prostaglandins that contribute to this side effect.
D) Fibric Acid Derivatives: These medications, such as gemfibrozil, are used to lower triglycerides and cholesterol levels, but they do not address the flushing side effect caused by niacin. Their mechanism of action is different and not focused on alleviating flushing symptoms.