The nurse is caring for a client who suffers from frequent blood clots and is currently taking argatroban. Which of the following conditions in the client's medical history would require them to take argatroban?
Heparin induced thrombocytopenia.
Ventricular Dysfunction
Myocardial infarction
Hepatotoxicity
The Correct Answer is A
A) Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT): Argatroban is an indirect thrombin inhibitor specifically used for anticoagulation in patients with HIT. This condition involves a significant drop in platelet counts due to heparin therapy, and argatroban is an appropriate alternative for preventing thrombosis in these patients.
B) Ventricular Dysfunction: While managing anticoagulation may be important in patients with ventricular dysfunction, this condition does not specifically necessitate the use of argatroban. Other anticoagulants may be used based on the clinical situation.
C) Myocardial infarction: Although anticoagulation may be warranted in the setting of a myocardial infarction, argatroban is not specifically indicated for this condition. Other antithrombotic therapies, such as aspirin or heparin, are more commonly used.
D) Hepatotoxicity: Argatroban is metabolized in the liver, so caution is warranted in patients with liver dysfunction. Hepatotoxicity itself would not be a reason to use argatroban; rather, it may require close monitoring or adjustment of dosage.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Dry, non-productive cough: One of the most common side effects associated with ACE inhibitors is a dry, non-productive cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin, a peptide that can increase in the body when ACE is inhibited. Nurses should assess for this symptom, as it may require changing the medication if it becomes bothersome to the client.
B) Nausea and vomiting: While nausea and vomiting can occur with various medications, they are not specific or common side effects of ACE inhibitors. If these symptoms do arise, they may be due to other factors and should be investigated further.
C) Hypokalemia and vomiting: ACE inhibitors are more commonly associated with hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels) rather than hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is important, but vomiting is not a typical side effect of ACE inhibitors.
D) Epistaxis and headache: Although headaches can occur with many medications, epistaxis (nosebleeds) is not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors. While headache assessment is appropriate, the dry cough is the more characteristic and important symptom to monitor in clients on these medications.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "Depending on the level of your PT/INR, the clot will begin to dissolve.": This response is misleading, as heparin's effect is not primarily monitored by PT/INR; rather, heparin is monitored by activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Moreover, heparin does not directly dissolve clots; it prevents further clot formation.
B. "After the first dose, the clot will begin to dissolve.": This statement inaccurately suggests that heparin has an immediate effect on dissolving existing clots. While heparin acts quickly to inhibit further clotting, it does not lead to the dissolution of clots after the first dose.
C. "It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level.": This is not accurate for heparin, which has an immediate effect on coagulation. While the therapeutic effects can be optimized over several days, heparin begins to work right away to prevent further clotting.
D. "Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.": This response accurately describes the mechanism of action of heparin. Heparin prevents the extension of existing clots and the formation of new clots, but it does not actively dissolve clots. This clarification is essential for the client’s understanding of their treatment and expectations regarding DVT management.