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The nurse is caring for a client who suffers from frequent blood clots and is currently taking argatroban. Which of the following conditions in the client's medical history would require them to take argatroban?

A.

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia.

B.

Ventricular Dysfunction

C.

Myocardial infarction

D.

Hepatotoxicity

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT): Argatroban is an indirect thrombin inhibitor specifically used for anticoagulation in patients with HIT. This condition involves a significant drop in platelet counts due to heparin therapy, and argatroban is an appropriate alternative for preventing thrombosis in these patients.

 

B) Ventricular Dysfunction: While managing anticoagulation may be important in patients with ventricular dysfunction, this condition does not specifically necessitate the use of argatroban. Other anticoagulants may be used based on the clinical situation.

 

C) Myocardial infarction: Although anticoagulation may be warranted in the setting of a myocardial infarction, argatroban is not specifically indicated for this condition. Other antithrombotic therapies, such as aspirin or heparin, are more commonly used.

 

D) Hepatotoxicity: Argatroban is metabolized in the liver, so caution is warranted in patients with liver dysfunction. Hepatotoxicity itself would not be a reason to use argatroban; rather, it may require close monitoring or adjustment of dosage.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) "Acts on the beta cells within the heart and lungs to regulate cardiac rhythm.": This statement is incorrect because calcium channel blockers do not primarily act on beta cells. Instead, they block calcium channels in cardiac and smooth muscle, which affects heart contractility and conductivity.

B) "Increases heart rate and increases myocardial contractility.": Calcium channel blockers typically do the opposite; they decrease heart rate and myocardial contractility by inhibiting calcium entry into the heart muscle cells. Therefore, this statement does not accurately describe their mechanism of action.

C) "Reduces the contractility and conductivity of the heart.": This statement accurately reflects the action of calcium channel blockers. By blocking calcium entry, these medications decrease myocardial contractility and slow down electrical conduction through the heart, which can help manage dysrhythmias.

D) "Increase oxygen to the systemic circulation.": While calcium channel blockers can improve blood flow and reduce myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing heart workload, their primary action does not directly focus on increasing oxygen delivery to systemic circulation. Their primary role is in managing heart contractility and rhythm.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Hypokalemia: Hypokalemia, or low potassium levels, significantly increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Since digoxin competes with potassium for binding at the sodium-potassium ATPase site in the heart, low potassium levels can lead to increased digoxin effects and toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor potassium levels and correct any deficiencies before administering digoxin.

B) Hyperkalemia: While hyperkalemia is a serious concern and can also affect digoxin therapy, it usually results in decreased effectiveness of digoxin rather than increasing toxicity. Elevated potassium levels can diminish the drug's positive inotropic effect.

C) Hypocalcemia: Although calcium levels can influence cardiac function, hypocalcemia is not directly related to digoxin toxicity. Monitoring calcium is important for overall cardiac health, but it is not the primary focus when assessing the risk for digoxin toxicity.

D) Hypernatremia: Elevated sodium levels do not have a direct impact on the efficacy or toxicity of digoxin. While sodium levels are essential to monitor for overall health, they are not critical in the context of digoxin administration and toxicity risk.

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