The nurse is caring for a client who suffers from frequent blood clots and is currently taking argatroban. Which of the following conditions in the client's medical history would require them to take argatroban?
Heparin induced thrombocytopenia.
Ventricular Dysfunction
Myocardial infarction
Hepatotoxicity
The Correct Answer is A
A) Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT): Argatroban is an indirect thrombin inhibitor specifically used for anticoagulation in patients with HIT. This condition involves a significant drop in platelet counts due to heparin therapy, and argatroban is an appropriate alternative for preventing thrombosis in these patients.
B) Ventricular Dysfunction: While managing anticoagulation may be important in patients with ventricular dysfunction, this condition does not specifically necessitate the use of argatroban. Other anticoagulants may be used based on the clinical situation.
C) Myocardial infarction: Although anticoagulation may be warranted in the setting of a myocardial infarction, argatroban is not specifically indicated for this condition. Other antithrombotic therapies, such as aspirin or heparin, are more commonly used.
D) Hepatotoxicity: Argatroban is metabolized in the liver, so caution is warranted in patients with liver dysfunction. Hepatotoxicity itself would not be a reason to use argatroban; rather, it may require close monitoring or adjustment of dosage.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Atenolol: This is a beta-blocker that can be used for various cardiac conditions, including hypertension and certain arrhythmias, but it is not typically the first-line treatment for acute life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias in the emergency setting.
B) Lisinopril: This medication is an ACE inhibitor primarily used to manage hypertension and heart failure. It does not address acute ventricular dysrhythmias and would not be appropriate for immediate use in this scenario.
C) Adenosine: While adenosine is effective for certain types of supraventricular tachycardia, it is not indicated for life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias. It has a very short duration of action and is not the drug of choice in this context.
D) Procainamide: This antiarrhythmic medication is specifically used to treat life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias. It works by stabilizing the cardiac membrane and is indicated in emergency situations to manage these types of arrhythmias. Therefore, preparing procainamide is the most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
A) Masking of hypoglycemia: Propranolol can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as tachycardia, which is important for clients with diabetes to be aware of. This means that while they may have low blood sugar, they might not experience the typical warning signs due to the medication's effects on the autonomic nervous system.
B) Tachycardia: Propranolol is a beta-blocker that is used to reduce heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore, tachycardia is not a side effect associated with this medication; in fact, it generally works to prevent this condition.
C) Bradycardia: Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, is a common side effect of propranolol due to its action on beta-adrenergic receptors. Clients should be educated about monitoring their heart rate and reporting any significant drops.
D) Orthostatic Hypotension: This is a potential side effect of propranolol, especially when starting the medication or increasing the dose. Clients should be advised to rise slowly from sitting or lying positions to minimize the risk of dizziness or fainting.
E) Hypertension: Propranolol is prescribed to manage hypertension, so it should not be expected as a side effect. In fact, it is intended to lower blood pressure, and clients should be educated that they should not experience increased hypertension while taking this medication.