The nurse is caring for a client who suffers from frequent blood clots and is currently taking argatroban. Which of the following conditions in the client's medical history would require them to take argatroban?
Heparin induced thrombocytopenia.
Ventricular Dysfunction
Myocardial infarction
Hepatotoxicity
The Correct Answer is A
A) Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT): Argatroban is an indirect thrombin inhibitor specifically used for anticoagulation in patients with HIT. This condition involves a significant drop in platelet counts due to heparin therapy, and argatroban is an appropriate alternative for preventing thrombosis in these patients.
B) Ventricular Dysfunction: While managing anticoagulation may be important in patients with ventricular dysfunction, this condition does not specifically necessitate the use of argatroban. Other anticoagulants may be used based on the clinical situation.
C) Myocardial infarction: Although anticoagulation may be warranted in the setting of a myocardial infarction, argatroban is not specifically indicated for this condition. Other antithrombotic therapies, such as aspirin or heparin, are more commonly used.
D) Hepatotoxicity: Argatroban is metabolized in the liver, so caution is warranted in patients with liver dysfunction. Hepatotoxicity itself would not be a reason to use argatroban; rather, it may require close monitoring or adjustment of dosage.
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Correct Answer is ["D","E"]
Explanation
A) Aspirin: While aspirin is an antiplatelet medication that can help prevent further clot formation, it does not have thrombolytic properties and does not directly lyse existing clots. Therefore, it is not appropriate for this purpose.
B) Heparin: Heparin is an anticoagulant used to prevent the extension of existing clots and reduce the risk of new clots forming, but it does not dissolve existing clots. It helps manage deep vein thrombosis but does not have thrombolytic activity.
C) Warfarin (Coumadin): Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that is used to prevent new clot formation and the growth of existing clots. However, like heparin, it does not actively lyse or dissolve existing clots.
D) Alteplase (Activase): This medication is a thrombolytic agent that actively dissolves blood clots by activating plasminogen to plasmin, leading to clot breakdown. It is appropriate for use in cases of deep vein thrombosis when clot lysis is indicated.
E) Anistreplase (Eminase): Similar to alteplase, anistreplase is another thrombolytic agent used to lyse existing clots. It acts by converting plasminogen to plasmin, effectively breaking down fibrin in clots, making it suitable for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Inhibits platelet aggregation: The primary benefit of aspirin following a myocardial infarction (MI) is its ability to inhibit platelet aggregation. By preventing platelets from clumping together, aspirin reduces the risk of further clot formation, which is critical in preventing additional cardiac events and improving overall cardiovascular outcomes.
B) Anti-inflammatory properties: While aspirin does have anti-inflammatory effects, this is not the primary reason it is prescribed after an MI. The focus in the post-MI setting is on its role in preventing clot formation rather than addressing inflammation.
C) Antiemetic: Aspirin is not an antiemetic and does not alleviate nausea or vomiting. Clients experiencing gastrointestinal issues or nausea would require different medications for those symptoms.
D) Anti-pyretic: Although aspirin can reduce fever, this effect is not the primary concern in the post-MI setting. The immediate goal is to improve heart health and prevent further thrombotic events, making platelet inhibition the most relevant benefit.