The nurse is caring for a client who experienced a severe headache. When the prescribed dose of analgesics did not cause relief, the client took double the dosage 1 hour later. The nurse should assess the client for what adverse effect?
An allergic reaction
Anaphylactic reaction
Poisoning
Sedative effects
The Correct Answer is C
A. An allergic reaction is a possible response to medication, but it is not directly related to doubling the dosage.
B. Anaphylactic reaction is a severe and rapid allergic response; while possible, it is not the most likely consequence of an overdose in this context.
C. Poisoning is a likely concern when a client takes double the prescribed dosage of analgesics, especially if the medication has a narrow therapeutic index or is known to cause toxicity at high doses.
D. Sedative effects could occur depending on the analgesic used, but poisoning is a more pressing concern following an overdose.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. An antipsychotic agent, particularly first-generation antipsychotics, can cause extrapyramidal symptoms such as tremors, drooling, gait changes, and spasms due to their dopamine-blocking effects in the brain.
B. An antidiabetic agent does not typically cause these neurological symptoms; its primary effects are related to glucose metabolism.
C. A general anesthetic is used to induce unconsciousness and does not generally result in muscular tremors or drooling.
D. An anticholinergic agent can cause side effects like dry mouth and constipation but does not typically lead to the muscular symptoms described; in fact, it may reduce drooling.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Rebound hypertension can occur if antihypertensive medications are abruptly stopped, but it is not a direct reason for switching from an ACE inhibitor to an angiotensin II receptor blocker.
B. A persistent cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to the accumulation of bradykinin. If the client experienced this side effect, it would likely prompt the healthcare provider to switch to an angiotensin II receptor blocker, which does not typically cause this issue.
C. A transient ischemic attack (TIA) would require urgent intervention but is not a reason for changing from an ACE inhibitor to an angiotensin II receptor blocker.
D. Non-adherence to ACE inhibitor treatment may lead to ineffective blood pressure control but would not directly justify a switch to a different class of medication.