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The nurse is caring for a client who currently has a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following medications would be administered to lyse existing clots? (Select All that Apply.)

A.

Aspirin

B.

Heparin

C.

warfarin (Coumadin)

D.

alteplase (Activase)

E.

anistreplase (Eminase)

Question Solution

Correct Answer : D,E

A) Aspirin: While aspirin is an antiplatelet medication that can help prevent further clot formation, it does not have thrombolytic properties and does not directly lyse existing clots. Therefore, it is not appropriate for this purpose.

 

B) Heparin: Heparin is an anticoagulant used to prevent the extension of existing clots and reduce the risk of new clots forming, but it does not dissolve existing clots. It helps manage deep vein thrombosis but does not have thrombolytic activity.

 

C) Warfarin (Coumadin): Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that is used to prevent new clot formation and the growth of existing clots. However, like heparin, it does not actively lyse or dissolve existing clots.

 

D) Alteplase (Activase): This medication is a thrombolytic agent that actively dissolves blood clots by activating plasminogen to plasmin, leading to clot breakdown. It is appropriate for use in cases of deep vein thrombosis when clot lysis is indicated.

 

E) Anistreplase (Eminase): Similar to alteplase, anistreplase is another thrombolytic agent used to lyse existing clots. It acts by converting plasminogen to plasmin, effectively breaking down fibrin in clots, making it suitable for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) "Acts on the beta cells within the heart and lungs to regulate cardiac rhythm.": This statement is incorrect because calcium channel blockers do not primarily act on beta cells. Instead, they block calcium channels in cardiac and smooth muscle, which affects heart contractility and conductivity.

B) "Increases heart rate and increases myocardial contractility.": Calcium channel blockers typically do the opposite; they decrease heart rate and myocardial contractility by inhibiting calcium entry into the heart muscle cells. Therefore, this statement does not accurately describe their mechanism of action.

C) "Reduces the contractility and conductivity of the heart.": This statement accurately reflects the action of calcium channel blockers. By blocking calcium entry, these medications decrease myocardial contractility and slow down electrical conduction through the heart, which can help manage dysrhythmias.

D) "Increase oxygen to the systemic circulation.": While calcium channel blockers can improve blood flow and reduce myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing heart workload, their primary action does not directly focus on increasing oxygen delivery to systemic circulation. Their primary role is in managing heart contractility and rhythm.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Beta Blockers: While beta blockers can be used to manage some side effects of various medications, they are not typically indicated for managing niacin-induced flushing. Their primary use is in cardiovascular conditions rather than specifically addressing flushing.

B) Calcium Channel Blockers: Calcium channel blockers are primarily used to treat hypertension and certain heart conditions. They do not specifically address the flushing associated with niacin and would not be the expected choice for this side effect.

C) NSAIDs: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can be effective in managing niacin-induced flushing. Administering an NSAID, such as ibuprofen, prior to taking niacin can help reduce the flushing response by inhibiting the prostaglandins that contribute to this side effect.

D) Fibric Acid Derivatives: These medications, such as gemfibrozil, are used to lower triglycerides and cholesterol levels, but they do not address the flushing side effect caused by niacin. Their mechanism of action is different and not focused on alleviating flushing symptoms.

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