The nurse is caring for a client taking fluoxetine for depression. Which assessment findings indicate that the medication is effective(Select all that apply.)
Improved sleep
Decreased anxiety
Reduced appetite
Weight loss
Correct Answer : A,B,E
A. Improved sleep is correct; an effective antidepressant can help normalize sleep patterns, which is a positive indicator of treatment efficacy.
B. Decreased anxiety is correct; fluoxetine is also effective in treating anxiety symptoms, so a reduction indicates the medication is working.
C. Reduced appetite is incorrect; while some individuals may experience appetite changes, a reduced appetite is not an indicator of effectiveness and could indicate a side effect.
D. Weight loss is incorrect; while weight loss can occur, it is not a definitive measure of the effectiveness of fluoxetine and can also signify side effects.
E. Interest in physical activity is correct; an increase in motivation and engagement in activities is a strong indicator of improvement in depressive symptoms.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A drug that binds tightly to protein is typically released slowly, not quickly, as it remains bound in circulation.
B. Tight binding to proteins usually results in a prolonged duration of action since the drug is released gradually into the bloodstream, leading to sustained therapeutic effects.
C. Drugs that bind tightly to protein are generally not excreted quickly; they remain in circulation longer due to the binding.
D. While toxicity can occur with any drug, tight protein binding does not inherently lead to toxicity; it primarily affects the pharmacokinetics of the drug.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. An increased risk for CNS depression is not typically associated with opioid agonist-antagonists; instead, these medications may produce a ceiling effect on sedation compared to full agonists.
B. Respiratory depression is more commonly associated with full opioid agonists rather than agonist-antagonists. Agonist-antagonists can sometimes counteract respiratory depression caused by full agonists.
C. Opioid withdrawal symptoms can occur when a client who is dependent on full agonist opioids is given an agonist-antagonist, as these medications can displace the agonist from receptors, leading to withdrawal.
D. Hypotension is a possible side effect of opioids but is not a specific concern with the use of agonist-antagonists in the context of opioid therapy.