The nurse is caring for a client immediately after epidural. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the anesthesia provider?
Dizziness.
Blood pressure 88/52 mmHg.
Pain of 1 on a 0 to 10 scale.
Pulse 88 bpm.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Dizziness can be a side effect of epidural anesthesia, but it is not as critical as hypotension. It should be monitored, but it does not require immediate reporting unless it is severe or accompanied by other symptoms.
Choice B rationale
Blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg indicates hypotension, which is a common and potentially serious side effect of epidural anesthesia. Hypotension can lead to decreased placental perfusion and fetal distress, so it requires immediate attention and reporting to the anesthesia provider.
Choice C rationale
A pain level of 1 on a 0 to 10 scale indicates that the epidural is effectively managing the client’s pain. This is a positive outcome and does not require reporting.
Choice D rationale
A pulse of 88 bpm is within the normal range for an adult and does not indicate any immediate concern that needs to be reported to the anesthesia provider.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Monitoring the fetal heart rate is the next appropriate action. The fetal heart rate provides crucial information about the fetus’s well-being and can help identify any potential issues that may need further intervention.
Choice B rationale
Monitoring uterine contractions is important, but in this scenario, the client’s vital signs are stable, and there is no indication of labor. Therefore, monitoring the fetal heart rate takes precedence.
Choice C rationale
Amniotic fluid levels are important to monitor, but they are typically assessed through ultrasound rather than immediate bedside monitoring. The fetal heart rate provides more immediate information about the fetus’s condition.
Choice D rationale
Cervical dilation is relevant during labor, but there is no indication that the client is in labor based on the provided vital signs. Monitoring the fetal heart rate is more pertinent in this situation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic agonist that works by relaxing the smooth muscles of the uterus, thereby reducing uterine contractions. It is commonly used in cases of tachysystole and recurrent late decelerations to decrease uterine activity and improve fetal oxygenation. Terbutaline’s mechanism of action involves stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in cyclic AMP and subsequent relaxation of uterine smooth muscle.
Choice B rationale
Oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and is typically used to induce or augment labor. Administering oxytocin in a situation where there is already tachysystole and recurrent late decelerations would exacerbate the problem by increasing uterine contractions, potentially leading to further fetal distress.
Choice C rationale
Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog used to ripen the cervix and induce labor. Similar to oxytocin, it would not be appropriate in this scenario as it would increase uterine contractions, worsening the tachysystole and late decelerations.
Choice D rationale
Magnesium sulfate is primarily used as a tocolytic to prevent preterm labor and as a neuroprotective agent for the fetus in cases of preeclampsia. While it has some uterine relaxation properties, it is not the first-line treatment for reducing uterine activity in the context of tachysystole and late decelerations.