The nurse is caring for a client immediately after epidural. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the anesthesia provider?
Dizziness.
Blood pressure 88/52 mmHg.
Pain of 1 on a 0 to 10 scale.
Pulse 88 bpm.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Dizziness can be a side effect of epidural anesthesia, but it is not as critical as hypotension. It should be monitored, but it does not require immediate reporting unless it is severe or accompanied by other symptoms.
Choice B rationale
Blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg indicates hypotension, which is a common and potentially serious side effect of epidural anesthesia. Hypotension can lead to decreased placental perfusion and fetal distress, so it requires immediate attention and reporting to the anesthesia provider.
Choice C rationale
A pain level of 1 on a 0 to 10 scale indicates that the epidural is effectively managing the client’s pain. This is a positive outcome and does not require reporting.
Choice D rationale
A pulse of 88 bpm is within the normal range for an adult and does not indicate any immediate concern that needs to be reported to the anesthesia provider.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The occiput anterior (OA) position is considered the optimal fetal position for vaginal birth. In this position, the baby’s head is down, and the back of the head (occiput) is facing the mother’s front. This position allows for the most efficient passage through the birth canal.
Choice B rationale
The occiput posterior (OP) position, where the baby’s head is down but facing the mother’s back, can lead to a longer and more painful labor. It is not considered optimal for vaginal birth.
Choice C rationale
Breech positions, where the baby’s buttocks or feet are positioned to come out first, are not optimal for vaginal birth and often require a cesarean section due to the increased risk of complications.
Choice D rationale
The transverse position, where the baby is lying sideways across the uterus, is not suitable for vaginal birth. This position typically requires a cesarean section to safely deliver the baby.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Amniocentesis is a diagnostic test that involves extracting a small amount of amniotic fluid from the uterus to test for chromosomal abnormalities and genetic disorders. It is typically performed between 15 and 20 weeks of pregnancy. The fluid contains fetal cells and various chemicals produced by the baby, which can be analyzed to detect conditions such as Down syndrome, trisomy 18, and neural tube defects. This test is highly accurate and is often recommended when screening tests like the MSAFP indicate a potential issue.
Choice B rationale
A Nonstress Test (NST) is a non-invasive test that measures the fetal heart rate in response to its movements. It is used to assess fetal well-being, particularly in the third trimester, but it does not provide information about chromosomal abnormalities. The NST is typically used to monitor high-risk pregnancies and to ensure that the fetus is receiving enough oxygen.
Choice C rationale
A Biophysical Profile (BPP) combines an ultrasound with a Nonstress Test to evaluate the fetus’s health. It assesses fetal breathing movements, body movements, muscle tone, amniotic fluid volume, and heart rate reactivity. While it provides a comprehensive assessment of fetal well-being, it does not specifically diagnose chromosomal abnormalities. The BPP is often used in the third trimester to monitor high-risk pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS) is another diagnostic test that can detect chromosomal abnormalities and genetic disorders. It involves taking a small sample of placental tissue (chorionic villi) for analysis. CVS is typically performed between 10 and 13 weeks of pregnancy, earlier than amniocentesis. While it provides similar diagnostic information, it is not the test of choice following an abnormal MSAFP result, which is usually conducted later in pregnancy.