Try our free nursing testbanks today. click here to join
Teas 7 test, Hesi A2 and Nursing prep
Nursingprepexams LEARN. PREPARE. EXCEL!
  • Home
  • Nursing
  • TEAS
  • HESI
  • Blog
Start Studying Now

Take full exam for free

The nurse is caring for a client following the insertion of a Nexplanon rod. Which priority instruction should the nurse provide this client?

A.

Back up methods are required for the first 24-hours following insertion.

B.

Smoking cessation is required to prevent thrombolytic events from occurring.

C.

This implant is associated with weight loss so make sure you consume enough calories.

D.

Prevention rate with Nexplanon is 100%.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Following the insertion of the Nexplanon rod, it is important to inform the client that backup contraception methods are needed for the first 24 hours to ensure pregnancy prevention while the implant becomes effective.  

 

B. While smoking cessation is advised due to the increased risk of thrombotic events with hormonal contraceptives, it is not the priority instruction immediately following the insertion of Nexplanon.  

 

C. The statement regarding weight loss is incorrect; Nexplanon is more commonly associated with weight gain rather than loss, so advising clients on calorie consumption is misleading.  

 

D. Although Nexplanon has a high efficacy rate in preventing pregnancy, stating a prevention rate of 100% is inaccurate and misleading, as no contraceptive method is completely foolproof.


Free Nursing Test Bank

  1. Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
  2. Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
  3. Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
  4. Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
  5. Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
  6. Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
  7. Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
  8. Free Community Health Quiz 8
  9. Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
  10. Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
Take full exam free

View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Diphenhydramine is an H1 antihistamine that works by blocking the effects of histamine at H1 receptor sites, thus alleviating allergy symptoms.

B. H2 receptor sites are primarily involved in gastric acid secretion, and diphenhydramine does not affect these receptors.

C. Diphenhydramine does not stimulate histamine effects; it blocks them instead.

D. The medication does not occupy all H receptor sites; it specifically targets H1 receptors to exert its effects.

Correct Answer is ["B","C","F"]

Explanation

A. Morphine administered intravenously bypasses the gastrointestinal tract and liver, avoiding the first-pass effect entirely.

B. Diphenhydramine in tablet form is absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract and undergoes significant first-pass metabolism in the liver, affecting its bioavailability.

C. Famotidine in tablet form is also subject to first-pass metabolism, which can reduce its effectiveness.

D. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are designed to bypass the first-pass metabolism by being absorbed directly into the bloodstream through the mucous membranes.

E. The same applies to nitroglycerin 10mg sublingual tablets; they also avoid the first-pass effect due to sublingual administration.

F. Acetaminophen is taken orally and undergoes first-pass metabolism in the liver, which can significantly affect its overall bioavailability.

Quick Links

Nursing Teas Hesi Blog

Resources

Nursing Test banks Teas Prep Hesi Prep Nursingprepexams Blogs
© Nursingprepexams.com @ 2019 -2025, All Right Reserved.