The nurse is caring for a client following the insertion of a Nexplanon rod. Which priority instruction should the nurse provide this client?
Back up methods are required for the first 24-hours following insertion.
Smoking cessation is required to prevent thrombolytic events from occurring.
This implant is associated with weight loss so make sure you consume enough calories.
Prevention rate with Nexplanon is 100%.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Following the insertion of the Nexplanon rod, it is important to inform the client that backup contraception methods are needed for the first 24 hours to ensure pregnancy prevention while the implant becomes effective.
B. While smoking cessation is advised due to the increased risk of thrombotic events with hormonal contraceptives, it is not the priority instruction immediately following the insertion of Nexplanon.
C. The statement regarding weight loss is incorrect; Nexplanon is more commonly associated with weight gain rather than loss, so advising clients on calorie consumption is misleading.
D. Although Nexplanon has a high efficacy rate in preventing pregnancy, stating a prevention rate of 100% is inaccurate and misleading, as no contraceptive method is completely foolproof.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Estrogen blockers can increase the risk of thromboembolic events, including deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism, which the nurse should caution the client about.
B. Tendon rupture is more commonly associated with certain antibiotics and corticosteroids, not typically with estrogen blockers.
C. Photosensitivity is not a common side effect associated with estrogen blockers; it is more related to specific antibiotics or other medications.
D. While some malignancies can be linked to immunosuppressive therapies, the direct risk of lymphomas is not typically associated with estrogen blockers.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A high first-pass effect means that a significant amount of the drug is metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, making oral administration less effective.
B. Morphine with a high first-pass effect will be more effective when administered via non-enteral routes, such as IV or subcutaneous, to bypass the liver's initial metabolism.
C. The first-pass effect does not influence the kidney’s rate of excretion but rather the liver’s initial metabolism of the drug.
D. The liver, not the kidneys, is responsible for the first-pass metabolism, which occurs before the drug reaches systemic circulation when taken orally.