The nurse is caring for a client following the insertion of a Nexplanon rod. Which priority instruction should the nurse provide this client?
Back up methods are required for the first 24-hours following insertion.
Smoking cessation is required to prevent thrombolytic events from occurring.
This implant is associated with weight loss so make sure you consume enough calories.
Prevention rate with Nexplanon is 100%.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Following the insertion of the Nexplanon rod, it is important to inform the client that backup contraception methods are needed for the first 24 hours to ensure pregnancy prevention while the implant becomes effective.
B. While smoking cessation is advised due to the increased risk of thrombotic events with hormonal contraceptives, it is not the priority instruction immediately following the insertion of Nexplanon.
C. The statement regarding weight loss is incorrect; Nexplanon is more commonly associated with weight gain rather than loss, so advising clients on calorie consumption is misleading.
D. Although Nexplanon has a high efficacy rate in preventing pregnancy, stating a prevention rate of 100% is inaccurate and misleading, as no contraceptive method is completely foolproof.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that is often used in hypertension management but is not considered a first-line treatment.
B. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is a first-line treatment for hypertension due to its effectiveness and safety profile, making it a common choice for initial therapy.
C. Doxazosin is an alpha-1 blocker that can be used for hypertension but is not typically a first-line treatment due to the risk of side effects like hypotension.
D. Clonidine is a central alpha agonist used in certain situations for hypertension but is not considered a first-line therapy due to potential adverse effects and sedation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Epinephrine is primarily used for anaphylaxis and severe asthma attacks; it is not effective in reversing opioid overdose.
B. Protamine is an antidote for heparin, not for opioid overdose.
C. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is not indicated for opioid overdose; it can potentially precipitate seizures in patients with mixed drug overdoses.
D. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist specifically indicated for reversing the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario.