The nurse is caring for a client following a myocardial infarction (MI) and prescribed asprin 325mg PO daily. Which of following effects of this medication would this client benefit from following a MI?
Inhibits platelet aggregation
Anti-inflammatory properties
Antiemetic
Anti-pyretic
The Correct Answer is A
A) Inhibits platelet aggregation: The primary benefit of aspirin following a myocardial infarction (MI) is its ability to inhibit platelet aggregation. By preventing platelets from clumping together, aspirin reduces the risk of further clot formation, which is critical in preventing additional cardiac events and improving overall cardiovascular outcomes.
B) Anti-inflammatory properties: While aspirin does have anti-inflammatory effects, this is not the primary reason it is prescribed after an MI. The focus in the post-MI setting is on its role in preventing clot formation rather than addressing inflammation.
C) Antiemetic: Aspirin is not an antiemetic and does not alleviate nausea or vomiting. Clients experiencing gastrointestinal issues or nausea would require different medications for those symptoms.
D) Anti-pyretic: Although aspirin can reduce fever, this effect is not the primary concern in the post-MI setting. The immediate goal is to improve heart health and prevent further thrombotic events, making platelet inhibition the most relevant benefit.
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Correct Answer is ["D","E"]
Explanation
A) Aspirin: While aspirin is an antiplatelet medication that can help prevent further clot formation, it does not have thrombolytic properties and does not directly lyse existing clots. Therefore, it is not appropriate for this purpose.
B) Heparin: Heparin is an anticoagulant used to prevent the extension of existing clots and reduce the risk of new clots forming, but it does not dissolve existing clots. It helps manage deep vein thrombosis but does not have thrombolytic activity.
C) Warfarin (Coumadin): Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that is used to prevent new clot formation and the growth of existing clots. However, like heparin, it does not actively lyse or dissolve existing clots.
D) Alteplase (Activase): This medication is a thrombolytic agent that actively dissolves blood clots by activating plasminogen to plasmin, leading to clot breakdown. It is appropriate for use in cases of deep vein thrombosis when clot lysis is indicated.
E) Anistreplase (Eminase): Similar to alteplase, anistreplase is another thrombolytic agent used to lyse existing clots. It acts by converting plasminogen to plasmin, effectively breaking down fibrin in clots, making it suitable for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Losartan (Cozaar): This medication is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) and is often used as an alternative for patients who experience a cough due to ACE inhibitors. Unlike ACE inhibitors, ARBs do not typically cause a cough because they do not affect bradykinin levels, making losartan an appropriate choice for managing hypertension without the adverse effect of a persistent cough.
B) Hydralazine HCL (Apresoline): While hydralazine is an antihypertensive, it works through a different mechanism (direct vasodilation) and is not a first-line alternative for patients with a history of ACE inhibitor-induced cough. It's generally used in specific situations, such as severe hypertension or heart failure.
C) Furosemide (Lasix): This is a loop diuretic primarily used for conditions like heart failure or edema, rather than for the management of hypertension alone. It does not address the underlying hypertension in the same manner as ACE inhibitors or ARBs.
D) Metoprolol (Lopressor): This is a beta-blocker that can be used for hypertension, but it does not directly address the issue of cough related to ACE inhibitors. Switching to a beta-blocker may not be the best option if the client is specifically seeking to avoid the cough associated with ACE inhibitors.