The nurse is caring for a client after a coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The client is exhibiting pitting edema of the lower extremities and jugular venous distention with increased central venous pressure. Which condition should the nurse suspect the client is experiencing based on these findings?
Internal bleeding.
Right-sided heart failure.
Left ventricular dysfunction.
Cardiac tamponade.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Internal bleeding typically presents with signs of hypovolemia, such as decreased blood pressure and increased heart rate, rather than pitting edema and jugular venous distention.
B. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by fluid overload, leading to symptoms like pitting edema in the extremities and jugular venous distention, which align with the findings observed in this client.
C. Left ventricular dysfunction primarily results in pulmonary congestion and respiratory distress rather than peripheral edema and jugular venous distention.
D. Cardiac tamponade may present with jugular venous distention, but it usually also involves hypotension and muffled heart sounds, which are not described in this scenario.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. restatement. Restatement involves repeating the patient’s words exactly, while here, the nurse is rephrasing the sentiment.
B. reflection. Reflection focuses on the patient’s feelings or experiences by paraphrasing their statement, helping the patient explore their feelings, which the nurse is doing here.
C. open-ended question. An open-ended question would be broad, allowing the patient to provide more information. This response is a restatement, not a question.
D. offering self. Offering self involves expressing a willingness to stay or support the patient, which is not demonstrated here.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Administering opioid and non-opioid medications together is an effective pain management strategy for severe pain. This approach can provide better pain relief by targeting different pain pathways and may reduce the total dosage of opioids needed, thus minimizing side effects.
B. Alternating IV and IM analgesic medications is not the best approach; instead, consistent pain management is necessary to keep pain levels under control.
C. Waiting until the pain score reaches 10 before administering the maximum dosage is inappropriate and could lead to inadequate pain control. Pain management should be proactive, not reactive.
D. While educating the client on narcotic dependency is important, it is not the priority intervention in this acute situation where pain control is essential. The immediate focus should be on effective pain relief.