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The nurse is caring for a client after a coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The client is exhibiting pitting edema of the lower extremities and jugular venous distention with increased central venous pressure. Which condition should the nurse suspect the client is experiencing based on these findings?

A.

Internal bleeding.

B.

Right-sided heart failure.

C.

Left ventricular dysfunction.

D.

Cardiac tamponade.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Internal bleeding typically presents with signs of hypovolemia, such as decreased blood pressure and increased heart rate, rather than pitting edema and jugular venous distention.  

 

B. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by fluid overload, leading to symptoms like pitting edema in the extremities and jugular venous distention, which align with the findings observed in this client.  

 

C. Left ventricular dysfunction primarily results in pulmonary congestion and respiratory distress rather than peripheral edema and jugular venous distention.  

 

D. Cardiac tamponade may present with jugular venous distention, but it usually also involves hypotension and muffled heart sounds, which are not described in this scenario.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Administering opioid and non-opioid medications together is an effective pain management strategy for severe pain. This approach can provide better pain relief by targeting different pain pathways and may reduce the total dosage of opioids needed, thus minimizing side effects.

B. Alternating IV and IM analgesic medications is not the best approach; instead, consistent pain management is necessary to keep pain levels under control.

C. Waiting until the pain score reaches 10 before administering the maximum dosage is inappropriate and could lead to inadequate pain control. Pain management should be proactive, not reactive.

D. While educating the client on narcotic dependency is important, it is not the priority intervention in this acute situation where pain control is essential. The immediate focus should be on effective pain relief.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Avoiding frequent eye pressure measurements is not advisable; monitoring eye pressure is crucial in managing glaucoma.

B. Maintaining the prescribed eye drop regimen is the most important instruction because consistent use of these medications is critical to managing intraocular pressure and preventing vision loss associated with glaucoma.

C. While wearing prescription glasses can assist with vision, it does not address the underlying condition of glaucoma.

D. Eating a diet high in carotene is beneficial for overall eye health but does not directly impact the management of glaucoma. Regular use of prescribed eye drops is essential to prevent further damage to the optic nerve and potential blindness.

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