The nurse is caring for a client after a coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The client is exhibiting pitting edema of the lower extremities and jugular venous distention with increased central venous pressure. Which condition should the nurse suspect the client is experiencing based on these findings?
Internal bleeding.
Right-sided heart failure.
Left ventricular dysfunction.
Cardiac tamponade.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Internal bleeding typically presents with signs of hypovolemia, such as decreased blood pressure and increased heart rate, rather than pitting edema and jugular venous distention.
B. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by fluid overload, leading to symptoms like pitting edema in the extremities and jugular venous distention, which align with the findings observed in this client.
C. Left ventricular dysfunction primarily results in pulmonary congestion and respiratory distress rather than peripheral edema and jugular venous distention.
D. Cardiac tamponade may present with jugular venous distention, but it usually also involves hypotension and muffled heart sounds, which are not described in this scenario.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "Take the vital signs on all the patients in the lounge and tell me whether there are problems." This instruction is vague and lacks specific information about what "problems" to look for, which may lead to inconsistent reporting.
B. "Do the morning care first on the patients in 205 and 206 who can't get out of bed." This instruction is clear, but it does not specify important details like the specific type of care expected or additional needs.
C. "Give the patient in 204A a shower after breakfast, and call me to check her feet before you get her dressed." This instruction is specific, clear, and provides a follow-up action (check her feet) which is necessary. It allows the nursing assistant to understand exactly what to do and when.
D. "You take care of all the patients in 205 and 206. Let me know how you're doing and whether you need any help." This instruction lacks specificity and does not outline clear tasks or expectations, which may lead to confusion.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Acute pain is the most immediate and pressing problem for the client, given the reported severe flank pain. Managing pain effectively is a primary concern in nursing care, particularly for clients with renal calculi.
B. While impaired renal function is a concern with renal calculi, the acute pain takes precedence as it requires immediate intervention to enhance the client's comfort and promote better overall health.
C. The risk for aspiration is a potential issue due to nausea and vomiting; however, addressing the pain is more urgent in this scenario.
D. Nutritional deficit related to nausea is also a valid concern but is secondary to the acute pain management. The client’s immediate comfort and pain relief should be prioritized to facilitate recovery and improve overall well-being.