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The nurse is caring for a client after a coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The client is exhibiting pitting edema of the lower extremities and jugular venous distention with increased central venous pressure. Which condition should the nurse suspect the client is experiencing based on these findings?

A.

Internal bleeding.

B.

Right-sided heart failure.

C.

Left ventricular dysfunction.

D.

Cardiac tamponade.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Internal bleeding typically presents with signs of hypovolemia, such as decreased blood pressure and increased heart rate, rather than pitting edema and jugular venous distention.  

 

B. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by fluid overload, leading to symptoms like pitting edema in the extremities and jugular venous distention, which align with the findings observed in this client.  

 

C. Left ventricular dysfunction primarily results in pulmonary congestion and respiratory distress rather than peripheral edema and jugular venous distention.  

 

D. Cardiac tamponade may present with jugular venous distention, but it usually also involves hypotension and muffled heart sounds, which are not described in this scenario.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Wearing braces or splints on both wrists at night helps to keep the wrists in a neutral position, preventing flexion that can worsen symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, particularly during sleep when the hands are more likely to be positioned in ways that exacerbate compression of the median nerve.

B. While notifying the healthcare provider is important if symptoms are severe, it is not the immediate teaching intervention the nurse should provide for symptom management.

C. Elevating the hands may help with swelling but is not the primary intervention for managing symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, especially pain and tingling.

D. Cold compresses may provide temporary relief but do not address the underlying issue of median nerve compression, which is better managed by using wrist braces.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Acute pain is the most immediate and pressing problem for the client, given the reported severe flank pain. Managing pain effectively is a primary concern in nursing care, particularly for clients with renal calculi.

B. While impaired renal function is a concern with renal calculi, the acute pain takes precedence as it requires immediate intervention to enhance the client's comfort and promote better overall health.

C. The risk for aspiration is a potential issue due to nausea and vomiting; however, addressing the pain is more urgent in this scenario.

D. Nutritional deficit related to nausea is also a valid concern but is secondary to the acute pain management. The client’s immediate comfort and pain relief should be prioritized to facilitate recovery and improve overall well-being.

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