The nurse is assisting the primary care provider (PCP) with the third stage of a vaginal delivery. The patient is multiparous, experienced a precipitous birth, and has a history of hypertension.
Which medical prescription does the nurse anticipate for this patient?
Methylergonovine (Methergine).
Magnesium sulfate.
Carboprost-tromethamine (Hemabate).
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP).
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Methylergonovine (Methergine) is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage by stimulating uterine contractions. It is especially useful in cases like this where rapid uterine tone is needed.
Choice B rationale
Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclamptic patients, not to manage postpartum hemorrhage. This choice is incorrect in this context.
Choice C rationale
Carboprost-tromethamine (Hemabate) is also used for treating postpartum hemorrhage but is typically a secondary option to methylergonovine and may have more side effects.
Choice D rationale
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is used to replace clotting factors in cases of coagulopathy, not as a primary intervention for postpartum hemorrhage in this patient.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Contraction duration less than 40 seconds doesn't define tachysystole. Tachysystole focuses on frequency, not duration, of contractions over a specific time frame.
Choice B rationale
Contraction frequency of more than 5 in 10 minutes defines tachysystole. This frequency indicates excessive uterine activity, requiring intervention to prevent fetal distress.
Choice C rationale
Contraction intensity less than 80 mm Hg does not define tachysystole. Intensity relates to contraction strength, but tachysystole is about frequency exceeding the normal range.
Choice D rationale
Resting tone less than 18 mm Hg isn't part of tachysystole's definition. Tachysystole pertains to contraction frequency, not resting tone, which measures uterine relaxation between contractions.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 15-year-old, G3 P0020, although young, doesn't have an increased risk of uterine rupture related to prior surgical deliveries or other known factors.
Choice B rationale
A 22-year-old, G1 P0000 with eclampsia requires close monitoring for complications related to eclampsia but not specifically for uterine rupture.
Choice C rationale
A 25-year-old, G4 P3003 with a previous cesarean section is at increased risk for uterine rupture due to the scar from the prior surgery which could weaken under the stress of labor.
Choice D rationale
A 32-year-old, G2 P0100's history of a prior fetal demise does not specifically increase the risk of uterine rupture unless accompanied by other risk factors. .