The nurse is assisting the primary care provider (PCP) with a vacuum-assisted delivery because of a prolonged second stage of labor.
The nurse will inform the PCP when which guideline of the procedure is met?
Extension of the episiotomy is performed.
Signs of fetal compromise have resolved.
The "three-pull" rule has been achieved.
Patient is under full anesthesia status.
Patient is under full anesthesia status.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Extension of the episiotomy is not a guideline for vacuum-assisted delivery. Episiotomy extension is considered based on perineal conditions during delivery, not as a primary
guideline for vacuum procedures.
Choice B rationale
Signs of fetal compromise resolving is critical for fetal safety but isn't specific to the guidelines for a vacuum-assisted delivery. Continuous fetal monitoring assesses for compromise,
not just vacuum application.
Choice C rationale
The "three-pull" rule refers to the number of attempts allowed with the vacuum to avoid excessive force and trauma. This guideline ensures safety during the procedure, preventing
overuse of vacuum pressure.
Choice D rationale
Full anesthesia status is unrelated to the guidelines for vacuum-assisted delivery. Anesthesia choices depend on patient and procedural needs, but aren't a guideline criterion for
vacuum use.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Checking the blood sugar of a gestational diabetic is essential but not immediately life-threatening. Blood sugar levels should be monitored regularly throughout pregnancy for
diabetics to prevent complications. However, this does not represent an urgent priority when compared to the other options, which involve more immediate risks to life and health.
Choice B rationale
Assessing vaginal blood loss in a client recovering from a spontaneous abortion is crucial to monitor for hemorrhage or infection. Heavy bleeding could signal a serious complication
needing immediate intervention, though it is not the most immediate priority over monitoring fetal heart rate during active labor.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring the patellar reflexes of a client with pre-eclampsia without severe features can help in detecting early signs of progressing pre-eclampsia. While important, it is generally
not as critical as ensuring immediate fetal wellbeing, especially if reflexes do not present signs of worsening.
Choice D rationale
Checking the fetal heart rate in a client whose membranes have just ruptured is paramount. Rupture of membranes could lead to immediate complications such as umbilical cord
prolapse, leading to rapid fetal distress. Therefore, verifying fetal heart rate ensures that the fetus is not in immediate danger.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Reporting abnormal findings to the obstetrician is unnecessary because an increase in the Bishop score from 4 to 10 indicates successful cervical ripening and readiness for labor
induction.
Choice B rationale
Placing the client on her side is not directly related to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. It may be considered for comfort during labor.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring for the onset of labor is appropriate since the increase in the Bishop score to 10 suggests that the cervix is favorable for labor. Continuous monitoring is essential to detect
the onset and progression of labor.
Choice D rationale
Performing nitrazine analysis of amniotic fluid is not relevant to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. This test is typically used to confirm the presence of amniotic
fluid in cases of suspected rupture of membranes.