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The nurse is assessing a patient who is a G5P5005 and delivered vaginally four hours ago. The patient's labor history includes a 16-hour oxytocin induction for a macrosomic infant.

Assessment findings include a firm uterus and a completely saturated peri pad with the presence of blood clots.
What does the nurse identify as the most likely cause for the increased bleeding?

A.

Tissue.

B.

Trauma.

C.

Thrombin.

D.

Tone.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

Retained tissue can cause postpartum hemorrhage, but with a firm uterus and no other signs of retained placenta, this is less likely the cause here.

 

Choice B rationale

Trauma is the most likely cause of increased bleeding in this scenario. The prolonged oxytocin induction and macrosomic infant suggest a higher risk of lacerations or uterine atony

despite the firm uterus.

 

Choice C rationale

Thrombin disorders cause bleeding due to clotting issues. However, this patient shows signs of active bleeding and clotting, making this less likely.

 

Choice D rationale

Uterine atony, indicated by a soft, boggy uterus, is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, but in this case, the uterus is firm, so it's less likely to be the cause.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Numbness in the toes and heel might suggest nerve involvement but is not a typical sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which involves the veins, not nerves.

Choice B rationale

Pain relieved by dorsiflexion (positive Homan's sign) is not reliable for diagnosing DVT. This symptom is outdated and not considered a definitive sign.

Choice C rationale

Spider-like and purple veins suggest superficial varicose veins, not deep vein thrombosis, which affects deeper veins and presents differently.

Choice D rationale

Swelling, redness, and warmth in the calf are classic signs of DVT due to the inflammation and obstruction of deep veins. These symptoms should prompt immediate medical evaluation and intervention. .

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Reporting abnormal findings to the obstetrician is unnecessary because an increase in the Bishop score from 4 to 10 indicates successful cervical ripening and readiness for labor

induction.

Choice B rationale

Placing the client on her side is not directly related to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. It may be considered for comfort during labor.

Choice C rationale

Monitoring for the onset of labor is appropriate since the increase in the Bishop score to 10 suggests that the cervix is favorable for labor. Continuous monitoring is essential to detect

the onset and progression of labor.

Choice D rationale

Performing nitrazine analysis of amniotic fluid is not relevant to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. This test is typically used to confirm the presence of amniotic

fluid in cases of suspected rupture of membranes.

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