The nurse is assessing a patient who is a G5P5005 and delivered vaginally four hours ago. The patient's labor history includes a 16-hour oxytocin induction for a macrosomic infant.
Assessment findings include a firm uterus and a completely saturated peri pad with the presence of blood clots.
What does the nurse identify as the most likely cause for the increased bleeding?
Tissue.
Trauma.
Thrombin.
Tone.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Retained tissue can cause postpartum hemorrhage, but with a firm uterus and no other signs of retained placenta, this is less likely the cause here.
Choice B rationale
Trauma is the most likely cause of increased bleeding in this scenario. The prolonged oxytocin induction and macrosomic infant suggest a higher risk of lacerations or uterine atony
despite the firm uterus.
Choice C rationale
Thrombin disorders cause bleeding due to clotting issues. However, this patient shows signs of active bleeding and clotting, making this less likely.
Choice D rationale
Uterine atony, indicated by a soft, boggy uterus, is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, but in this case, the uterus is firm, so it's less likely to be the cause.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the
likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.
Choice B rationale
A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications
associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.
Choice C rationale
A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to
complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.
Choice D rationale
A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative
risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 15-year-old, G3 P0020, although young, doesn't have an increased risk of uterine rupture related to prior surgical deliveries or other known factors.
Choice B rationale
A 22-year-old, G1 P0000 with eclampsia requires close monitoring for complications related to eclampsia but not specifically for uterine rupture.
Choice C rationale
A 25-year-old, G4 P3003 with a previous cesarean section is at increased risk for uterine rupture due to the scar from the prior surgery which could weaken under the stress of labor.
Choice D rationale
A 32-year-old, G2 P0100's history of a prior fetal demise does not specifically increase the risk of uterine rupture unless accompanied by other risk factors. .