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The nurse is assessing a patient who is a G5P5005 and delivered vaginally four hours ago. The patient's labor history includes a 16-hour oxytocin induction for a macrosomic infant.

Assessment findings include a firm uterus and a completely saturated peri pad with the presence of blood clots.
What does the nurse identify as the most likely cause for the increased bleeding?

A.

Tissue.

B.

Trauma.

C.

Thrombin.

D.

Tone.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

Retained tissue can cause postpartum hemorrhage, but with a firm uterus and no other signs of retained placenta, this is less likely the cause here.

 

Choice B rationale

Trauma is the most likely cause of increased bleeding in this scenario. The prolonged oxytocin induction and macrosomic infant suggest a higher risk of lacerations or uterine atony

despite the firm uterus.

 

Choice C rationale

Thrombin disorders cause bleeding due to clotting issues. However, this patient shows signs of active bleeding and clotting, making this less likely.

 

Choice D rationale

Uterine atony, indicated by a soft, boggy uterus, is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, but in this case, the uterus is firm, so it's less likely to be the cause.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A low transverse uterine scar is considered the safest type of uterine incision for a VBAC because it is less likely to rupture compared to other types of scars. Therefore, a low transverse uterine scar would not disqualify the patient for VBAC.

Choice B rationale

Patient asking multiple questions does not disqualify her for VBAC. Patient education and ensuring the patient’s understanding and agreement with the procedure is an essential part of the process.

Choice C rationale

Induction of labor in the first pregnancy does not automatically disqualify a patient from attempting VBAC. The success of VBAC depends on multiple factors including the reason for the initial cesarean section.

Choice D rationale

A cesarean due to pelvic abnormalities would disqualify the patient for VBAC because the underlying pelvic condition that necessitated the initial cesarean section is likely still present and would increase the risk of complications during vaginal birth.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Impaired intellectual development in children born to mothers with diabetes can occur due to fluctuating blood glucose levels, which can affect brain development.

Choice B rationale

Development of metabolic syndrome is more likely in children born to mothers with diabetes due to genetic predispositions and prenatal exposure to hyperglycemia.

Choice C rationale

Shoulder injury related to birth size, although a possible immediate complication, is not typically considered a long-term effect of maternal diabetes.

Choice D rationale

Changes in genetic expression can occur due to epigenetic modifications from exposure to maternal diabetes, potentially leading to various health issues later in life.

Choice E rationale

Increased risk for chronic illnesses, such as type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular diseases, is higher in children born to mothers with diabetes, due to genetic and environmental factors.

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