The nurse in an OB clinic is completing an intake assessment of a client at the first prenatal appointment. The client is currently 9 weeks pregnant. She had a miscarriage at 7 weeks and an ectopic pregnancy at 6 weeks that was treated with methotrexate. Her five-year-old son was born vaginally at 39 weeks and her three-year-old daughter was born vaginally at 35 weeks.
What is her GTPAL?
G4T1 P1 A1 L2.
G5T2 P0 A2 L2.
G5T1 P1 A2 L2.
G5T1 P1 A1 L3.
G5T1 P1 A1 L3.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
G4T1 P1 A1 L2 implies the client has been pregnant 4 times, with 1 term birth, 1 preterm birth, 1 abortion, and 2 living children. This does not include the correct number of
pregnancies or abortions for this client.
Choice B rationale
G5T2 P0 A2 L2 indicates 5 pregnancies, 2 term births, no preterm births, 2 abortions, and 2 living children. This does not correctly account for the preterm birth and abortion history
provided.
Choice C rationale
G5T1 P1 A2 L2 is the correct answer, as it denotes 5 pregnancies (including the current one), 1 term birth, 1 preterm birth, 2 abortions, and 2 living children, aligning with the client's
history.
Choice D rationale
G5T1 P1 A1 L3 indicates 5 pregnancies, 1 term birth, 1 preterm birth, 1 abortion, and 3 living children. The client has only 2 living children, so this is incorrect.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Severe nausea and vomiting, known as hyperemesis gravidarum, are more commonly associated with high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and are not specific to
ectopic pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
While vaginal bleeding can occur in an ectopic pregnancy, it is usually not a large amount. The bleeding in ectopic pregnancy tends to be light and irregular.
Choice C rationale
Uterine enlargement greater than expected for gestational age is typically associated with conditions like molar pregnancy, not ectopic pregnancy, as the pregnancy is located outside
the uterus.
Choice D rationale
Unilateral, cramp-like abdominal pain is a classic symptom of ectopic pregnancy as the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, most commonly in a fallopian tube, causing
localized pain.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Assessing the client's blood pressure can help determine if there is a significant loss of blood and consequent hypotension. However, it is not the immediate first action to manage
heavy bleeding postpartum.
Choice B rationale
Assessing the bladder for distention is crucial as a full bladder can interfere with uterine contraction, potentially leading to increased bleeding. But, it isn't the first priority compared to
addressing the immediate bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Massaging the client's fundus is the priority action in this case. It helps to contract the uterus, thereby reducing bleeding. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum
hemorrhage, and fundal massage is the first intervention to manage it.
Choice D rationale
Preparing to administer a prescription may be necessary, especially if uterotonics are required. However, this is a subsequent step after attempting to control the bleeding through
fundal massage.