The nurse in an OB clinic is completing an intake assessment of a client at the first prenatal appointment. The client is currently 9 weeks pregnant. She had a miscarriage at 7 weeks and an ectopic pregnancy at 6 weeks that was treated with methotrexate. Her five-year-old son was born vaginally at 39 weeks and her three-year-old daughter was born vaginally at 35 weeks.
What is her GTPAL?
G4T1 P1 A1 L2.
G5T2 P0 A2 L2.
G5T1 P1 A2 L2.
G5T1 P1 A1 L3.
G5T1 P1 A1 L3.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
G4T1 P1 A1 L2 implies the client has been pregnant 4 times, with 1 term birth, 1 preterm birth, 1 abortion, and 2 living children. This does not include the correct number of
pregnancies or abortions for this client.
Choice B rationale
G5T2 P0 A2 L2 indicates 5 pregnancies, 2 term births, no preterm births, 2 abortions, and 2 living children. This does not correctly account for the preterm birth and abortion history
provided.
Choice C rationale
G5T1 P1 A2 L2 is the correct answer, as it denotes 5 pregnancies (including the current one), 1 term birth, 1 preterm birth, 2 abortions, and 2 living children, aligning with the client's
history.
Choice D rationale
G5T1 P1 A1 L3 indicates 5 pregnancies, 1 term birth, 1 preterm birth, 1 abortion, and 3 living children. The client has only 2 living children, so this is incorrect.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Accidental lacerations are possible during a cesarean delivery, but they are typically managed quickly and are not the most critical issue immediately after birth.
Choice B rationale
Respiratory distress is the priority assessment for a newborn following a cesarean delivery because cesarean births can increase the risk of transient tachypnea or other respiratory complications due to the lack of labor-induced respiratory adaptation.
Choice C rationale
Hypothermia is a concern for all newborns, but respiratory distress takes precedence in the immediate post-delivery period, especially following cesarean delivery.
Choice D rationale
Acrocyanosis is a common and typically benign condition in newborns, not requiring immediate intervention compared to respiratory distress.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Irregular menses are not a direct risk factor for cervical cancer. While they can indicate hormonal imbalances, they are not strongly linked to cervical cancer risk.
Choice B rationale
Menopausal status and hormone replacement therapy (HRT) are more closely linked to breast cancer risks rather than cervical cancer. Cervical cancer is primarily associated with HPV infection.
Choice C rationale
Multiple sexual partners increase the risk of HPV infection, which is the primary cause of cervical cancer. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that significantly raises the likelihood of developing cervical cancer.
Choice D rationale
A family history of breast cancer is more relevant to breast cancer risk rather than cervical cancer. Cervical cancer risk is more closely linked to HPV infection and sexual behavior.