The nurse in an OB clinic is completing an intake assessment of a client at the first prenatal appointment. The client is currently 9 weeks pregnant. She had a miscarriage at 7 weeks and an ectopic pregnancy at 6 weeks that was treated with methotrexate. Her five-year-old son was born vaginally at 39 weeks and her three-year-old daughter was born vaginally at 35 weeks.
What is her GTPAL?
G4T1 P1 A1 L2.
G5T2 P0 A2 L2.
G5T1 P1 A2 L2.
G5T1 P1 A1 L3.
G5T1 P1 A1 L3.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
G4T1 P1 A1 L2 implies the client has been pregnant 4 times, with 1 term birth, 1 preterm birth, 1 abortion, and 2 living children. This does not include the correct number of
pregnancies or abortions for this client.
Choice B rationale
G5T2 P0 A2 L2 indicates 5 pregnancies, 2 term births, no preterm births, 2 abortions, and 2 living children. This does not correctly account for the preterm birth and abortion history
provided.
Choice C rationale
G5T1 P1 A2 L2 is the correct answer, as it denotes 5 pregnancies (including the current one), 1 term birth, 1 preterm birth, 2 abortions, and 2 living children, aligning with the client's
history.
Choice D rationale
G5T1 P1 A1 L3 indicates 5 pregnancies, 1 term birth, 1 preterm birth, 1 abortion, and 3 living children. The client has only 2 living children, so this is incorrect.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Postpartum blues typically resolve within the first two weeks postpartum and involve mild symptoms like mood swings and irritability. In contrast, postpartum depression can persist
longer and requires treatment.
Choice B rationale
Symptoms of postpartum blues usually disappear without medical intervention, whereas postpartum depression often needs professional treatment to manage the more severe and
persistent symptoms.
Choice C rationale
Postpartum depression can impair a mother's ability to care for herself and her baby safely, requiring intervention to prevent harm. Postpartum blues do not typically cause such severe
functional impairment.
Choice D rationale
Postpartum depression may require antidepressants for treatment due to its severity. Postpartum blues generally do not necessitate such interventions and are managed through
support and reassurance.
Choice E rationale
Postpartum depression can occur at any time within the first 12 months after delivery, while postpartum blues are usually confined to the initial two weeks postpartum.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
External fetal monitors are non-invasive and do not pose a risk of transmitting HIV from mother to baby. They are considered safe for monitoring fetal well-being in an HIV-positive mother.
Choice B rationale
Administering antiviral medication is essential in reducing the risk of mother-to-child transmission of HIV. It's a standard care practice for managing HIV-positive pregnant women.
Choice C rationale
Preparing for a caesarean section may be recommended to reduce the risk of vertical transmission of HIV during delivery, especially if the viral load is high.
Choice D rationale
Internal fetal scalp electrodes are contraindicated because they can create a portal for HIV transmission from mother to baby through small abrasions or punctures on the fetal scalp.