The nurse in a prenatal clinic is assessing a patient who is at 37 weeks' gestation for twins. The patient reports increased discomfort and increased lower pelvic pressure.
Which action does the nurse take with this patient?
Explains to the patient that increased discomfort is expected with twins.
Performs a digital cervical examination to determine if dilation is occurring.
Sends the patient to the hospital to be checked for possible signs of labor.
After examination, assures the patient of the absence of contractions.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
While it’s true that increased discomfort is expected with twins due to additional physical strain and space constraints, this alone is not sufficient reassurance. It is vital to assess for
signs of preterm labor or other complications.
Choice B rationale
Performing a digital cervical examination is a valid approach to checking for dilation, but this action must be carefully considered based on other signs and symptoms presented by
the patient. The focus here is on ensuring the absence or presence of labor, which might require hospital assessment.
Choice C rationale
Sending the patient to the hospital to be checked for possible signs of labor ensures that professional monitoring and interventions can occur if labor is confirmed. This action
prioritizes safety, given the increased risk of complications with twin pregnancies and the advanced gestation of 37 weeks.
Choice D rationale
Assuring the patient of the absence of contractions after an examination might provide temporary relief, but it does not address the possibility of other signs of labor or complications
that may require more comprehensive hospital assessment.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the
likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.
Choice B rationale
A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications
associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.
Choice C rationale
A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to
complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.
Choice D rationale
A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative
risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Retained tissue can cause postpartum hemorrhage, but with a firm uterus and no other signs of retained placenta, this is less likely the cause here.
Choice B rationale
Trauma is the most likely cause of increased bleeding in this scenario. The prolonged oxytocin induction and macrosomic infant suggest a higher risk of lacerations or uterine atony
despite the firm uterus.
Choice C rationale
Thrombin disorders cause bleeding due to clotting issues. However, this patient shows signs of active bleeding and clotting, making this less likely.
Choice D rationale
Uterine atony, indicated by a soft, boggy uterus, is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, but in this case, the uterus is firm, so it's less likely to be the cause.