The home care nurse is providing teaching to the family of a patient with multiple myeloma. Which nursing diagnosis should guide the nurse for this teaching?
Ineffective airway clearance related to swelling of the lymph nodes
Ineffective tissue perfusion related to vascular occlusion
Risk for injury related to compromised bone integrity
Risk for deficit fluid volume related to a bleeding disorder
The Correct Answer is C
A. Ineffective airway clearance related to swelling of the lymph nodes: Multiple myeloma primarily affects bone marrow and bones rather than lymph nodes, so this diagnosis is less relevant.
B. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to vascular occlusion: Vascular occlusion is not a common complication of multiple myeloma, although hyperviscosity can occur, especially in advanced stages. However, the primary concern is bone integrity.
C. Risk for injury related to compromised bone integrity: Multiple myeloma weakens bones due to the presence of osteolytic lesions, increasing the risk for fractures. Teaching the family about measures to prevent injury is crucial.
D. Risk for deficit fluid volume related to a bleeding disorder: Multiple myeloma does not usually cause a primary bleeding disorder that would result in fluid volume deficit. Bone fractures and hypercalcemia are more immediate concerns.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The spleen is the primary site for platelet destruction. In ITP, the spleen often sequesters and destroys platelets, leading to low platelet levels. Removing the spleen reduces platelet destruction and can help increase platelet counts in affected patients.
B. The spleen is at risk for infection due to the critical loss of WBCs. While infection risk increases after splenectomy, this is not the rationale for the procedure. The spleen does play a role in immune function, but splenectomy is indicated for reducing platelet destruction, not infection prevention.
C. Your spleen is making too many platelets. The spleen does not produce platelets; rather, it filters and sometimes destroys them, particularly in ITP. This choice does not accurately reflect the pathophysiology of ITP.
D. The spleen causes an overabundance of immature platelets. The spleen does not cause an increase in immature platelets. In ITP, platelets are destroyed, not overproduced.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Malformed RBCs: Malformed RBCs are not caused by a transfusion reaction; they are generally a result of bone marrow abnormalities or genetic conditions.
B. A deficiency in vitamin B12: Vitamin B12 deficiency causes megaloblastic anemia, not hemolysis. It is unrelated to transfusion reactions.
C. An abundance of immature RBCs: Immature RBCs, or reticulocytes, can increase as a compensatory response to anemia but are not a direct result of a transfusion reaction. The primary issue is RBC destruction.
D. Destruction of RBCs: A hemolytic reaction occurs when the immune system attacks incompatible red blood cells, leading to their destruction.