The client's respiratory rate is 9 breaths per minute, and they deny feeling short of breath. The nurse will document this finding as:
Eupnea
Bradypnea
Tachypnea
Dyspnea
The Correct Answer is B
A) Eupnea: Eupnea refers to a normal respiratory rate, typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute for adults. Given that the client’s respiratory rate is significantly lower than this range, documenting the finding as eupnea would not accurately reflect the client’s condition.
B) Bradypnea: Bradypnea is defined as a slower-than-normal respiratory rate, usually less than 12 breaths per minute. With the client's rate at 9 breaths per minute, this is an example of bradypnea. It is crucial for the nurse to document this finding accurately, even though the client denies feeling short of breath, as it could indicate an underlying issue requiring further assessment.
C) Tachypnea: Tachypnea indicates a faster-than-normal respiratory rate, typically over 20 breaths per minute. Since the client's respiratory rate is low at 9 breaths per minute, labeling it as tachypnea would be incorrect and misleading.
D) Dyspnea: Dyspnea refers to difficulty or discomfort in breathing. Although the client does not report feeling short of breath, it is essential to note that the low respiratory rate could still lead to respiratory distress, but it does not meet the criteria for dyspnea based on the client's self-report. Therefore, documenting this finding as dyspnea would not be appropriate.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Idiopathic neuropathy has no known cause: This statement is accurate, as idiopathic neuropathy refers to nerve damage for which no specific cause can be identified despite thorough investigation. The term "idiopathic" literally means "of unknown origin," indicating that the underlying mechanism remains unclear.
B) Idiopathic neuropathy is hereditary in nature: While some neuropathies can be hereditary, idiopathic neuropathy itself is not classified as hereditary since it lacks a defined genetic cause. Hereditary neuropathies are specific types that have a genetic basis.
C) Idiopathic neuropathy is caused by nutritional deficits: Nutritional deficits can lead to various types of neuropathy, but idiopathic neuropathy specifically is characterized by the absence of a known cause. Therefore, attributing it to nutritional deficits would be incorrect.
D) Idiopathic neuropathy is caused by disease or illness: While certain diseases can cause neuropathy, the key characteristic of idiopathic neuropathy is that no specific disease or illness has been identified as the cause. This differentiates it from other neuropathies that are secondary to identifiable conditions.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Motor component of IV (Trochlear): The trochlear nerve primarily controls the superior oblique muscle of the eye, which is responsible for downward and lateral eye movements. The findings described do not relate to eye movement and therefore do not indicate dysfunction of this nerve.
B) Motor and sensory components of XI (Accessory): The accessory nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, primarily affecting head rotation and shoulder elevation. The symptoms noted in the assessment do not pertain to these muscle functions, so this option is not correct.
C) Motor component of VII (Facial): The signs of asymmetry in frowning, uneven eyebrow lifting, sagging eyelids, and air escaping when puffing the cheeks are characteristic of dysfunction in the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). This nerve controls the muscles of facial expression, and impairment would lead to the described asymmetrical movements.
D) Motor component of X (Vagus) and sensory component of XII (Hypoglossal): The vagus nerve affects autonomic functions and some swallowing muscles, while the hypoglossal nerve controls tongue movements. Neither nerve is primarily responsible for the facial expressions described in the assessment findings, making this option incorrect.