The client's respiratory rate is 9 breaths per minute, and they deny feeling short of breath. The nurse will document this finding as:
Eupnea
Bradypnea
Tachypnea
Dyspnea
The Correct Answer is B
A) Eupnea: Eupnea refers to a normal respiratory rate, typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute for adults. Given that the client’s respiratory rate is significantly lower than this range, documenting the finding as eupnea would not accurately reflect the client’s condition.
B) Bradypnea: Bradypnea is defined as a slower-than-normal respiratory rate, usually less than 12 breaths per minute. With the client's rate at 9 breaths per minute, this is an example of bradypnea. It is crucial for the nurse to document this finding accurately, even though the client denies feeling short of breath, as it could indicate an underlying issue requiring further assessment.
C) Tachypnea: Tachypnea indicates a faster-than-normal respiratory rate, typically over 20 breaths per minute. Since the client's respiratory rate is low at 9 breaths per minute, labeling it as tachypnea would be incorrect and misleading.
D) Dyspnea: Dyspnea refers to difficulty or discomfort in breathing. Although the client does not report feeling short of breath, it is essential to note that the low respiratory rate could still lead to respiratory distress, but it does not meet the criteria for dyspnea based on the client's self-report. Therefore, documenting this finding as dyspnea would not be appropriate.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Dietary history from the patient: This information is subjective as it relies on the patient’s personal account of their eating habits, which may be influenced by memory or perception. It does not provide measurable data.
B) BMI (Body Mass Index): This is an objective measure calculated from a person’s height and weight. It provides quantifiable data that can be used to assess nutritional status and potential health risks associated with body weight.
C) Patient history of alcohol intake: This information is subjective as it is based on the patient’s self-report. It does not provide direct evidence and may vary depending on how the patient perceives their alcohol consumption.
D) Patient complaint of weight loss: This is also subjective data, as it relies on the patient’s perception of their weight change. It does not provide concrete measurements and can be influenced by various factors such as mood or misunderstanding of the situation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Talking in a loud voice: While this may indicate some level of distress or confusion, it does not necessarily signal a specific neurological deficit. Clients may raise their voice for various reasons unrelated to neurological issues.
B) Grimacing with movement: This could suggest discomfort or pain but is not an explicit indicator of neurological impairment. Grimacing can occur for many reasons, including musculoskeletal issues or emotional responses, and does not specifically necessitate a focused neurological assessment.
C) Asymmetry of the client's smile: This finding is significant and raises concerns about potential neurological issues, such as a stroke or Bell's palsy. Facial asymmetry may indicate weakness or dysfunction in the cranial nerves responsible for facial movement, warranting a more thorough neurological examination to assess for underlying causes.
D) Inability to follow directions: While this may point to confusion or cognitive impairment, it is a more general indicator and could result from various factors, including anxiety or lack of understanding. It does not specifically highlight a localized neurological deficit as clearly as facial asymmetry does.