The client's respiratory rate is 9 breaths per minute, and they deny feeling short of breath. The nurse will document this finding as:
Eupnea
Bradypnea
Tachypnea
Dyspnea
The Correct Answer is B
A) Eupnea: Eupnea refers to a normal respiratory rate, typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute for adults. Given that the client’s respiratory rate is significantly lower than this range, documenting the finding as eupnea would not accurately reflect the client’s condition.
B) Bradypnea: Bradypnea is defined as a slower-than-normal respiratory rate, usually less than 12 breaths per minute. With the client's rate at 9 breaths per minute, this is an example of bradypnea. It is crucial for the nurse to document this finding accurately, even though the client denies feeling short of breath, as it could indicate an underlying issue requiring further assessment.
C) Tachypnea: Tachypnea indicates a faster-than-normal respiratory rate, typically over 20 breaths per minute. Since the client's respiratory rate is low at 9 breaths per minute, labeling it as tachypnea would be incorrect and misleading.
D) Dyspnea: Dyspnea refers to difficulty or discomfort in breathing. Although the client does not report feeling short of breath, it is essential to note that the low respiratory rate could still lead to respiratory distress, but it does not meet the criteria for dyspnea based on the client's self-report. Therefore, documenting this finding as dyspnea would not be appropriate.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Third left ICS: The third left intercostal space (ICS) is typically associated with the auscultation of the pulmonic valve rather than the tricuspid valve. While it is in the vicinity of the heart, it is not the correct location for assessing the tricuspid area.
B) Second right ICS: The second right intercostal space is where the aortic valve is best heard. This location is important for assessing blood flow through the aorta, but it is not relevant for the tricuspid valve auscultation.
C) Fourth left ICS: The tricuspid valve is best auscultated at the fourth left intercostal space along the left sternal border. This area allows for optimal listening to the sounds produced by the tricuspid valve, providing important information about right heart function.
D) Second left ICS: The second left intercostal space is the auscultation point for the pulmonic valve, not the tricuspid valve. While this area is critical for assessing the heart, it does not correspond to the location for the tricuspid valve.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Have the client smile, frown, and puff out their cheeks: This test assesses the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII), not the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V). While important for evaluating facial movement, it does not specifically test the motor function of the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for mastication.
B) Palpate the masseter muscles when the client clenches their teeth: This is the correct test for assessing the motor function of the trigeminal nerve. The trigeminal nerve innervates the muscles responsible for chewing, and palpating the masseter muscles during clenching allows the nurse to evaluate muscle strength and function. It provides insight into the motor capabilities associated with this cranial nerve.
C) Assess constriction of the client's pupils with direct and indirect light: This test evaluates the function of the optic nerve (cranial nerve II) and the oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III). It does not assess the trigeminal nerve and is not relevant for this assessment.
D) Ask the patient to turn their head left and right with resistance: This action tests the spinal accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI), which is involved in neck movement. It does not relate to the function of the trigeminal nerve, making it an inappropriate choice for this specific assessment.