The client's respiratory rate is 9 breaths per minute, and they deny feeling short of breath. The nurse will document this finding as:
Eupnea
Bradypnea
Tachypnea
Dyspnea
The Correct Answer is B
A) Eupnea: Eupnea refers to a normal respiratory rate, typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute for adults. Given that the client’s respiratory rate is significantly lower than this range, documenting the finding as eupnea would not accurately reflect the client’s condition.
B) Bradypnea: Bradypnea is defined as a slower-than-normal respiratory rate, usually less than 12 breaths per minute. With the client's rate at 9 breaths per minute, this is an example of bradypnea. It is crucial for the nurse to document this finding accurately, even though the client denies feeling short of breath, as it could indicate an underlying issue requiring further assessment.
C) Tachypnea: Tachypnea indicates a faster-than-normal respiratory rate, typically over 20 breaths per minute. Since the client's respiratory rate is low at 9 breaths per minute, labeling it as tachypnea would be incorrect and misleading.
D) Dyspnea: Dyspnea refers to difficulty or discomfort in breathing. Although the client does not report feeling short of breath, it is essential to note that the low respiratory rate could still lead to respiratory distress, but it does not meet the criteria for dyspnea based on the client's self-report. Therefore, documenting this finding as dyspnea would not be appropriate.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Dietary history from the patient: This information is subjective as it relies on the patient’s personal account of their eating habits, which may be influenced by memory or perception. It does not provide measurable data.
B) BMI (Body Mass Index): This is an objective measure calculated from a person’s height and weight. It provides quantifiable data that can be used to assess nutritional status and potential health risks associated with body weight.
C) Patient history of alcohol intake: This information is subjective as it is based on the patient’s self-report. It does not provide direct evidence and may vary depending on how the patient perceives their alcohol consumption.
D) Patient complaint of weight loss: This is also subjective data, as it relies on the patient’s perception of their weight change. It does not provide concrete measurements and can be influenced by various factors such as mood or misunderstanding of the situation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Information sharing is limited to those directly involved in the client's care: This statement reflects the principle of confidentiality and the ethical obligation to protect the client's private health information. Only healthcare providers directly involved in the client’s care should have access to their information, ensuring that it remains secure and confidential.
B) All members of the unit's healthcare team may have access to the client's chart: While many healthcare team members need access to the client's information for care coordination, this statement is misleading. Access should be limited to those directly involved in the client’s care to protect their confidentiality.
C) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) determines who may communicate with the client: While HIPAA does set guidelines for the protection of health information and governs the sharing of health data, it does not specifically determine who may communicate with the client. Instead, it focuses on protecting their privacy.
D) The medical records are open to any hospital employee, including administration: This statement is incorrect as it violates confidentiality principles. Medical records are not accessible to all hospital employees; access is restricted to authorized personnel only, ensuring that patient information is kept confidential.