The client's respiratory rate is 9 breaths per minute, and they deny feeling short of breath. The nurse will document this finding as:
Eupnea
Bradypnea
Tachypnea
Dyspnea
The Correct Answer is B
A) Eupnea: Eupnea refers to a normal respiratory rate, typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute for adults. Given that the client’s respiratory rate is significantly lower than this range, documenting the finding as eupnea would not accurately reflect the client’s condition.
B) Bradypnea: Bradypnea is defined as a slower-than-normal respiratory rate, usually less than 12 breaths per minute. With the client's rate at 9 breaths per minute, this is an example of bradypnea. It is crucial for the nurse to document this finding accurately, even though the client denies feeling short of breath, as it could indicate an underlying issue requiring further assessment.
C) Tachypnea: Tachypnea indicates a faster-than-normal respiratory rate, typically over 20 breaths per minute. Since the client's respiratory rate is low at 9 breaths per minute, labeling it as tachypnea would be incorrect and misleading.
D) Dyspnea: Dyspnea refers to difficulty or discomfort in breathing. Although the client does not report feeling short of breath, it is essential to note that the low respiratory rate could still lead to respiratory distress, but it does not meet the criteria for dyspnea based on the client's self-report. Therefore, documenting this finding as dyspnea would not be appropriate.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) The patient's integumentary system is within normal limits for his age: While thinning skin and decreased turgor can be common in older adults, the specific combination of findings, including the patient feeling cold, suggests that further investigation is warranted rather than assuming they are normal.
B) The patient may have a metabolic condition causing him to feel cold: Thin skin and non-elastic turgor can be indicative of aging, but the sensation of always feeling cold may point to an underlying metabolic condition, such as hypothyroidism or poor circulation, which can affect thermoregulation.
C) The patient has abnormal thinning of skin: While skin thinning is common in older adults, it is not necessarily "abnormal" in the context of aging. However, in conjunction with other symptoms like non-elastic turgor and cold sensitivity, it may warrant further evaluation.
D) The patient should have elastic turgor: In older adults, it is common to see decreased elasticity and turgor of the skin. Therefore, expecting the patient to have elastic turgor may not be appropriate, as it reflects the natural aging process rather than a healthy standard.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Have the client smile, frown, and puff out their cheeks: This test assesses the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII), not the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V). While important for evaluating facial movement, it does not specifically test the motor function of the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for mastication.
B) Palpate the masseter muscles when the client clenches their teeth: This is the correct test for assessing the motor function of the trigeminal nerve. The trigeminal nerve innervates the muscles responsible for chewing, and palpating the masseter muscles during clenching allows the nurse to evaluate muscle strength and function. It provides insight into the motor capabilities associated with this cranial nerve.
C) Assess constriction of the client's pupils with direct and indirect light: This test evaluates the function of the optic nerve (cranial nerve II) and the oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III). It does not assess the trigeminal nerve and is not relevant for this assessment.
D) Ask the patient to turn their head left and right with resistance: This action tests the spinal accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI), which is involved in neck movement. It does not relate to the function of the trigeminal nerve, making it an inappropriate choice for this specific assessment.