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The antepartum nurse has just received shift report on four pregnant clients at 0700.
Which of the clients should the nurse assess first?

A.

G5 P2202, 32 weeks, placenta previa, today's hemoglobin 11.6 g/dL.

B.

G2 P0101, 39 weeks, type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), fasting blood glucose.

C.

G1 P0000, 32 weeks, partial placental abruption, fetal heart rate (FHR) 120 bpm 15 minutes ago.

D.

G2 P1001, 28 weeks, Rh-negative (Rh-), 1 day post cerclage placement.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

The hemoglobin level of 11.6 g/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman. While placenta previa requires monitoring, it is not immediately life-threatening.

 

Choice B rationale

Type 2 diabetes mellitus requires regular monitoring and management, but a single fasting blood glucose level does not indicate an immediate emergency unless it is extremely high or low.

 

Choice C rationale

Partial placental abruption can lead to significant complications for both the mother and fetus, including hemorrhage and fetal distress, making it the priority for immediate assessment.

 

Choice D rationale

An Rh-negative status and a recent cerclage placement are important for ongoing monitoring but do not present an immediate life-threatening condition that demands the first assessment.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Methylergonovine (Methergine) is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage by stimulating uterine contractions. It is especially useful in cases like this where rapid uterine tone is needed.

Choice B rationale

Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclamptic patients, not to manage postpartum hemorrhage. This choice is incorrect in this context.

Choice C rationale

Carboprost-tromethamine (Hemabate) is also used for treating postpartum hemorrhage but is typically a secondary option to methylergonovine and may have more side effects.

Choice D rationale

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is used to replace clotting factors in cases of coagulopathy, not as a primary intervention for postpartum hemorrhage in this patient.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Placing a pacifier in the baby's mouth is inappropriate because it does not address the underlying cause of grunting, which can be a sign of respiratory distress.

Choice B rationale

Checking the baby's diaper is not relevant to assessing the cause of grunting. Grunting is usually related to respiratory issues rather than a dirty diaper.

Choice C rationale

Having the mother feed the baby is inappropriate because grunting may indicate respiratory distress. Feeding should be deferred until the baby's respiratory status is assessed and stabilized.

Choice D rationale

Assessing the respiratory rate is appropriate because grunting in a newborn can indicate respiratory distress. The nurse should evaluate the respiratory status to determine the need for further intervention.

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