The antepartum nurse has just received shift report on four pregnant clients at 0700.
Which of the clients should the nurse assess first?
G5 P2202, 32 weeks, placenta previa, today's hemoglobin 11.6 g/dL.
G2 P0101, 39 weeks, type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), fasting blood glucose.
G1 P0000, 32 weeks, partial placental abruption, fetal heart rate (FHR) 120 bpm 15 minutes ago.
G2 P1001, 28 weeks, Rh-negative (Rh-), 1 day post cerclage placement.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
The hemoglobin level of 11.6 g/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman. While placenta previa requires monitoring, it is not immediately life-threatening.
Choice B rationale
Type 2 diabetes mellitus requires regular monitoring and management, but a single fasting blood glucose level does not indicate an immediate emergency unless it is extremely high or low.
Choice C rationale
Partial placental abruption can lead to significant complications for both the mother and fetus, including hemorrhage and fetal distress, making it the priority for immediate assessment.
Choice D rationale
An Rh-negative status and a recent cerclage placement are important for ongoing monitoring but do not present an immediate life-threatening condition that demands the first assessment.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Retained tissue can cause postpartum hemorrhage, but with a firm uterus and no other signs of retained placenta, this is less likely the cause here.
Choice B rationale
Trauma is the most likely cause of increased bleeding in this scenario. The prolonged oxytocin induction and macrosomic infant suggest a higher risk of lacerations or uterine atony
despite the firm uterus.
Choice C rationale
Thrombin disorders cause bleeding due to clotting issues. However, this patient shows signs of active bleeding and clotting, making this less likely.
Choice D rationale
Uterine atony, indicated by a soft, boggy uterus, is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, but in this case, the uterus is firm, so it's less likely to be the cause.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Petechiae, small red or purple spots on the skin, indicate a low platelet count, which is a component of HELLP syndrome.
Choice B rationale
Jaundice, a yellowing of the skin and eyes, suggests liver involvement and hemolysis, both of which are features of HELLP syndrome.
Choice C rationale
4+ deep tendon reflexes are associated with severe pre-eclampsia but are not specific to HELLP syndrome.
Choice D rationale
3+ pitting edema, severe fluid retention causing swelling, can be a sign of HELLP syndrome, indicating liver or kidney involvement. .