The antepartum nurse has just received shift report on four pregnant clients at 0700.
Which of the clients should the nurse assess first?
G5 P2202, 32 weeks, placenta previa, today's hemoglobin 11.6 g/dL.
G2 P0101, 39 weeks, type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), fasting blood glucose.
G1 P0000, 32 weeks, partial placental abruption, fetal heart rate (FHR) 120 bpm 15 minutes ago.
G2 P1001, 28 weeks, Rh-negative (Rh-), 1 day post cerclage placement.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
The hemoglobin level of 11.6 g/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman. While placenta previa requires monitoring, it is not immediately life-threatening.
Choice B rationale
Type 2 diabetes mellitus requires regular monitoring and management, but a single fasting blood glucose level does not indicate an immediate emergency unless it is extremely high or low.
Choice C rationale
Partial placental abruption can lead to significant complications for both the mother and fetus, including hemorrhage and fetal distress, making it the priority for immediate assessment.
Choice D rationale
An Rh-negative status and a recent cerclage placement are important for ongoing monitoring but do not present an immediate life-threatening condition that demands the first assessment.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Decreased muscle tone is not typically associated with NAS. NAS often presents with increased muscle tone due to withdrawal symptoms.
Choice B rationale
A continuous high-pitched cry is a hallmark sign of NAS, indicating withdrawal and discomfort. This is due to overstimulation of the central nervous system.
Choice C rationale
Newborns with NAS often have difficulty sleeping due to irritability and discomfort, sleeping for shorter periods.
Choice D rationale
Tremors in NAS are typically pronounced and continuous, not just when disturbed. These tremors result from withdrawal effects on the nervous system.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the
likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.
Choice B rationale
A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications
associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.
Choice C rationale
A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to
complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.
Choice D rationale
A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative
risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .