Postpartum endometritis is:
Associated with precipitous labor and birth.
Effectively treated with a single dose of ampicillin or cephalosporin.
Less frequent following cesarean birth due to sterile technique used during surgery.
Associated with internal monitoring, amnioinfusion, prolonged labor, and prolonged rupture of membranes.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Precipitous labor and birth are not directly associated with postpartum endometritis. The primary risk factors are related to infections during labor.
Choice B rationale
Postpartum endometritis is typically treated with a combination of antibiotics for 7-10 days, not a single dose of ampicillin or cephalosporin. A single dose would be insufficient for
treating the infection.
Choice C rationale
Postpartum endometritis is more common following cesarean birth due to increased risk of infection despite the use of sterile techniques during surgery.
Choice D rationale
Postpartum endometritis is associated with internal monitoring, amnioinfusion, prolonged labor, and prolonged rupture of membranes. These factors increase the risk of infection,
which can lead to endometritis.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Swaddling provides warmth but doesn't address jitteriness, which may be due to hypoglycemia.
Choice B rationale
Jitteriness in a newborn can indicate hypoglycemia. Prompt glucose assessment is crucial for early detection and management.
Choice C rationale
Feeding could help with glucose levels, but without knowing the glucose status, it might not be the immediate priority.
Choice D rationale
Routine medications are important but not as urgent as addressing possible hypoglycemia in a jittery baby.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Magnesium sulfate is not given to increase diuresis; this is not its primary effect and is incorrect in the context of treating preeclampsia.
Choice B rationale
Magnesium sulfate is administered to prevent seizures in patients with preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and helps in preventing eclampsia.
Choice C rationale
Although magnesium sulfate may have a mild effect on reducing blood pressure due to its vasodilatory properties, this is not its primary purpose in the management of preeclampsia.
Choice D rationale
Magnesium sulfate is not used to slow the process of labor; its main role is seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia.