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Which assessment data would indicate to the nurse that pharmacologic treatment with antibiotics and antacids has been effective for the patient diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease (PUD) secondary to H. pylori?

 

A.

Absence of burning epigastric pain after eating.

B.

Two episodes of coffee-ground emesis.

C.

A decrease in the patient’s alcohol intake.

D.

Normalization of the patient’s hemoglobin levels.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

 

The absence of burning epigastric pain after eating indicates that the treatment for peptic ulcer disease (PUD) secondary to H. pylori has been effective. This suggests that the ulcer has healed and the inflammation has subsided.

 

Choice B rationale

 

Coffee-ground emesis indicates the presence of blood in the vomit, which suggests ongoing bleeding and is not a sign of effective treatment for PUD.

 

Choice C rationale

 

A decrease in alcohol intake is beneficial for overall health but does not directly indicate the effectiveness of treatment for PUD secondary to H. pylori.

 

Choice D rationale

 

Normalization of hemoglobin levels is important but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of treatment for PUD secondary to H. pylori. The primary indicator would be the resolution of symptoms such as burning epigastric pain.


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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Septic shock is characterized by a systemic inflammatory response to infection, leading to vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, and hypotension. The patient’s elevated temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension are consistent with septic shock. In septic shock, the body’s response to infection leads to widespread inflammation and impaired tissue perfusion.

Choice B rationale

Hypovolemic shock is caused by a significant loss of blood or fluids, leading to decreased circulating volume and hypotension. While the patient’s hypotension and tachycardia could be consistent with hypovolemic shock, the elevated temperature suggests an infectious process, making septic shock more likely.

Choice C rationale

Cardiogenic shock is caused by the heart’s inability to pump effectively, leading to decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion. While hypotension and tachycardia are consistent with cardiogenic shock, the elevated temperature is not a typical finding. Cardiogenic shock is usually associated with conditions like myocardial infarction or severe heart failure.

Choice D rationale

Neurogenic shock is caused by a disruption in the autonomic pathways, leading to vasodilation and hypotension. It is typically associated with spinal cord injuries or severe head trauma. The patient’s elevated temperature and tachycardia are not consistent with neurogenic shock, making septic shock the more likely diagnosis.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

The left extrapyramidal tract is involved in motor control, but lesions here would not cause right homonymous hemianopia or inability to move the right arm. These symptoms are more indicative of a lesion in the cerebral hemisphere.

Choice B rationale

A lesion in the right cerebral hemisphere would cause left-sided symptoms, not right-sided. The patient’s symptoms are indicative of a lesion in the left cerebral hemisphere.

Choice C rationale

The cerebellum is involved in coordination and balance, not in causing right homonymous hemianopia or inability to move the right arm. These symptoms are more indicative of a lesion in the cerebral hemisphere.

Choice D rationale

A lesion in the left cerebral hemisphere can cause right homonymous hemianopia and inability to move the right arm. This is because the left hemisphere controls the right side of the body and processes visual information from the right visual field.

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