A patient with cerebral ischemia has signs and symptoms of right homonymous hemianopia and inability to move the right arm. This is indicative of increased intracranial pressure that is most probably due to a lesion in the:
Left extrapyramidal tract.
Right cerebral hemisphere.
Cerebellum.
Left cerebral hemisphere.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
The left extrapyramidal tract is involved in motor control, but lesions here would not cause right homonymous hemianopia or inability to move the right arm. These symptoms are more indicative of a lesion in the cerebral hemisphere.
Choice B rationale
A lesion in the right cerebral hemisphere would cause left-sided symptoms, not right-sided. The patient’s symptoms are indicative of a lesion in the left cerebral hemisphere.
Choice C rationale
The cerebellum is involved in coordination and balance, not in causing right homonymous hemianopia or inability to move the right arm. These symptoms are more indicative of a lesion in the cerebral hemisphere.
Choice D rationale
A lesion in the left cerebral hemisphere can cause right homonymous hemianopia and inability to move the right arm. This is because the left hemisphere controls the right side of the body and processes visual information from the right visual field.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Enlarged liver (hepatomegaly) and peripheral edema are common clinical manifestations of right heart failure (RHF). RHF leads to congestion of systemic circulation, causing fluid accumulation in the liver and peripheral tissues.
Choice B rationale
Crackles in the lungs are more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid backs up into the pulmonary circulation, leading to pulmonary edema.
Choice C rationale
A dry hacking cough is not a typical symptom of right heart failure. It is more commonly associated with respiratory conditions such as asthma or bronchitis.
Choice D rationale
Altered mentation with pinpoint pupils is not a characteristic of right heart failure. These symptoms are more indicative of neurological conditions or opioid overdose.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Decreasing coronary artery constriction by giving aspirin is a primary objective in managing unstable angina. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of clot formation and improving blood flow in the coronary arteries. This helps to alleviate chest pain and prevent myocardial infarction.
Choice B rationale
Increasing afterload for the left ventricle to maximize cardiac output is not a desirable objective in managing unstable angina. Increasing afterload would increase the workload on the heart, which is counterproductive in patients with angina. The goal is to reduce the heart’s workload and improve blood flow.
Choice C rationale
Increasing preload to reduce overall cardiac workload is not a primary objective in managing unstable angina. Increasing preload would increase the volume of blood returning to the heart, potentially worsening symptoms. The focus is on reducing myocardial oxygen demand and improving coronary perfusion.
Choice D rationale
Reducing arterial inflammation by administering statins is a long-term strategy for managing cardiovascular disease, but it is not the immediate objective in managing unstable angina. Statins help to lower cholesterol levels and reduce inflammation, but the immediate goal in unstable angina is to relieve chest pain and prevent myocardial infarction.