A patient presents to the emergency department (ED) complaining of nausea, vomiting, and the “worst headache he has ever experienced.”. While examining the patient, the nurse notes left leg and arm weakness.The patient is immediately sent to the radiology department for a CT scan. The registered nurse (RN) identifies the immediate need for treatment because:
A hemorrhagic brain attack is more common than an ischemic brain attack.
A thrombolytic drug will cause the peripheral and central reflexes to become hyper-reactive.
A hemorrhagic brain attack requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage.
An ischemic brain attack is less severe than a hemorrhagic brain attack.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
A hemorrhagic brain attack (stroke) is less common than an ischemic brain attack. Ischemic strokes account for the majority of strokes.
Choice B rationale
Thrombolytic drugs are used to treat ischemic strokes, not hemorrhagic strokes. They do not cause hyper-reactive reflexes.
Choice C rationale
A hemorrhagic brain attack requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Hemorrhagic strokes involve bleeding in the brain, which can rapidly worsen and cause severe damage.
Choice D rationale
An ischemic brain attack is not necessarily less severe than a hemorrhagic brain attack. Both types of strokes are serious, but hemorrhagic strokes often require more urgent intervention due to the risk of ongoing bleeding.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Nausea and vomiting can be caused by various conditions, including gastrointestinal issues and brain injuries, but they are not specifically indicative of a diffuse brain stem injury.
Choice B rationale
Nuchal rigidity, or neck stiffness, is a classic sign of meningeal irritation, often due to meningeal edema in conditions like meningitis.
Choice C rationale
Bilateral fixed and dilated pupils are more commonly associated with severe brain injury or increased intracranial pressure, not specifically a cerebellar brain attack.
Choice D rationale
Brudzinski’s sign is a physical exam finding indicative of meningeal irritation, commonly seen in bacterial meningitis, not specifically viral meningitis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate helps to lower potassium levels by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines. However, it is not the first intervention because it takes time to work and does not address the immediate risk of cardiac arrhythmias caused by hyperkalemia.
Choice B rationale
Monitoring the client’s cardiac rhythm is the first intervention because hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Continuous cardiac monitoring allows for the early detection and treatment of these arrhythmias, which is crucial for the client’s safety.
Choice C rationale
Restricting dietary potassium intake is an important long-term management strategy for hyperkalemia, especially in clients with chronic kidney disease. However, it does not address the immediate risk of cardiac arrhythmias and is not the first intervention.
Choice D rationale
Preparing the client for hemodialysis is a definitive treatment for hyperkalemia, especially in clients with chronic kidney disease. However, it is not the first intervention because it takes time to arrange and initiate dialysis. Immediate cardiac monitoring is necessary to manage the acute risk of arrhythmias.