A patient presents to the emergency department (ED) complaining of nausea, vomiting, and the “worst headache he has ever experienced.”. While examining the patient, the nurse notes left leg and arm weakness.The patient is immediately sent to the radiology department for a CT scan. The registered nurse (RN) identifies the immediate need for treatment because:
A hemorrhagic brain attack is more common than an ischemic brain attack.
A thrombolytic drug will cause the peripheral and central reflexes to become hyper-reactive.
A hemorrhagic brain attack requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage.
An ischemic brain attack is less severe than a hemorrhagic brain attack.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
A hemorrhagic brain attack (stroke) is less common than an ischemic brain attack. Ischemic strokes account for the majority of strokes.
Choice B rationale
Thrombolytic drugs are used to treat ischemic strokes, not hemorrhagic strokes. They do not cause hyper-reactive reflexes.
Choice C rationale
A hemorrhagic brain attack requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Hemorrhagic strokes involve bleeding in the brain, which can rapidly worsen and cause severe damage.
Choice D rationale
An ischemic brain attack is not necessarily less severe than a hemorrhagic brain attack. Both types of strokes are serious, but hemorrhagic strokes often require more urgent intervention due to the risk of ongoing bleeding.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not necessarily concerning for a client with COPD. COPD patients often have higher respiratory rates due to their chronic lung condition.
Choice B rationale
A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) indicates a fever, which could be a sign of infection. However, it is not the most concerning finding in a COPD patient.
Choice C rationale
A pulse oximetry reading of 88% is concerning because it indicates hypoxemia. COPD patients often have lower oxygen levels, but a reading below 90% is worrisome and may require supplemental oxygen or other interventions.
Choice D rationale
A blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg is elevated but not immediately concerning in the context of COPD. It is important to monitor, but it is not the most critical finding.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Decreasing the secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) by the pituitary gland is not a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit. TSH primarily regulates thyroid function and metabolism, and its secretion is not directly related to fluid balance or osmolality.
Choice B rationale
Increasing renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) activity by the kidneys is the body’s primary compensatory response to fluid volume deficit. When there is a decrease in blood volume or blood pressure, the kidneys release renin, which activates the RAAS. This system increases the reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys, leading to an increase in blood volume and blood pressure.
Choice C rationale
Decreasing the secretion of cortisol by the adrenal gland is not a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit. Cortisol is a stress hormone that helps regulate metabolism, immune response, and other functions, but it is not directly involved in fluid balance.
Choice D rationale
Increasing the secretion of natriuretic peptides by the heart is a response to fluid overload, not fluid deficit. Natriuretic peptides promote the excretion of sodium and water by the kidneys, which helps reduce blood volume and pressure. This response is opposite to what is needed in a fluid volume deficit situation.