A patient presents to the emergency department (ED) complaining of nausea, vomiting, and the “worst headache he has ever experienced.”. While examining the patient, the nurse notes left leg and arm weakness.The patient is immediately sent to the radiology department for a CT scan. The registered nurse (RN) identifies the immediate need for treatment because:
A hemorrhagic brain attack is more common than an ischemic brain attack.
A thrombolytic drug will cause the peripheral and central reflexes to become hyper-reactive.
A hemorrhagic brain attack requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage.
An ischemic brain attack is less severe than a hemorrhagic brain attack.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
A hemorrhagic brain attack (stroke) is less common than an ischemic brain attack. Ischemic strokes account for the majority of strokes.
Choice B rationale
Thrombolytic drugs are used to treat ischemic strokes, not hemorrhagic strokes. They do not cause hyper-reactive reflexes.
Choice C rationale
A hemorrhagic brain attack requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Hemorrhagic strokes involve bleeding in the brain, which can rapidly worsen and cause severe damage.
Choice D rationale
An ischemic brain attack is not necessarily less severe than a hemorrhagic brain attack. Both types of strokes are serious, but hemorrhagic strokes often require more urgent intervention due to the risk of ongoing bleeding.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The absence of burning epigastric pain after eating indicates that the treatment for peptic ulcer disease (PUD) secondary to H. pylori has been effective. This suggests that the ulcer has healed and the inflammation has subsided.
Choice B rationale
Coffee-ground emesis indicates the presence of blood in the vomit, which suggests ongoing bleeding and is not a sign of effective treatment for PUD.
Choice C rationale
A decrease in alcohol intake is beneficial for overall health but does not directly indicate the effectiveness of treatment for PUD secondary to H. pylori.
Choice D rationale
Normalization of hemoglobin levels is important but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of treatment for PUD secondary to H. pylori. The primary indicator would be the resolution of symptoms such as burning epigastric pain.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hypersplenism is a condition often associated with cirrhosis, where the spleen becomes overactive. This leads to the destruction of blood cells, causing anemia (low red blood cells), leukopenia (low white blood cells), and thrombocytopenia (low platelets).
Choice B rationale
Peptic ulcer disease primarily affects the stomach and duodenum, leading to ulcers and bleeding. It does not typically cause anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia in the context of cirrhosis.
Choice C rationale
Cholecystitis is the inflammation of the gallbladder, usually due to gallstones. It does not cause the blood cell abnormalities seen in cirrhosis.
Choice D rationale
Esophageal varices are swollen veins in the esophagus that develop due to portal hypertension in cirrhosis. While they can cause bleeding, they do not directly cause anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia.