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A patient presents to the emergency department (ED) complaining of nausea, vomiting, and the “worst headache he has ever experienced.”. While examining the patient, the nurse notes left leg and arm weakness.The patient is immediately sent to the radiology department for a CT scan. The registered nurse (RN) identifies the immediate need for treatment because:

 

A.

A hemorrhagic brain attack is more common than an ischemic brain attack.

B.

A thrombolytic drug will cause the peripheral and central reflexes to become hyper-reactive.

C.

A hemorrhagic brain attack requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage.

D.

An ischemic brain attack is less severe than a hemorrhagic brain attack.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

 

A hemorrhagic brain attack (stroke) is less common than an ischemic brain attack. Ischemic strokes account for the majority of strokes.

 

Choice B rationale

 

Thrombolytic drugs are used to treat ischemic strokes, not hemorrhagic strokes. They do not cause hyper-reactive reflexes.

 

Choice C rationale

 

A hemorrhagic brain attack requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Hemorrhagic strokes involve bleeding in the brain, which can rapidly worsen and cause severe damage.

 

Choice D rationale

 

An ischemic brain attack is not necessarily less severe than a hemorrhagic brain attack. Both types of strokes are serious, but hemorrhagic strokes often require more urgent intervention due to the risk of ongoing bleeding.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Autonomic neuropathy is a common complication of diabetes and can affect various autonomic functions, including heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion. It is caused by damage to the autonomic nerves due to prolonged high blood sugar levels.

Choice B rationale

Diabetic-induced leukocyte depletion is not a recognized complication of diabetes. Diabetes primarily affects blood vessels and nerves rather than causing leukocyte depletion.

Choice C rationale

Diabetic-induced angiopathy refers to damage to blood vessels caused by diabetes. While it is a recognized complication, autonomic neuropathy is more directly related to diabetic-induced complications.

Choice D rationale

Overdrive of the RAAS (renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system) is not a specific complication of diabetes. While diabetes can affect the RAAS, it is not the most likely condition related to diabetic-induced complications.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Enlarged liver (hepatomegaly) and peripheral edema are common clinical manifestations of right heart failure (RHF). RHF leads to congestion of systemic circulation, causing fluid accumulation in the liver and peripheral tissues.

Choice B rationale

Crackles in the lungs are more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid backs up into the pulmonary circulation, leading to pulmonary edema.

Choice C rationale

A dry hacking cough is not a typical symptom of right heart failure. It is more commonly associated with respiratory conditions such as asthma or bronchitis.

Choice D rationale

Altered mentation with pinpoint pupils is not a characteristic of right heart failure. These symptoms are more indicative of neurological conditions or opioid overdose.

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