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A patient presents to the emergency department (ED) complaining of nausea, vomiting, and the “worst headache he has ever experienced.”. While examining the patient, the nurse notes left leg and arm weakness.The patient is immediately sent to the radiology department for a CT scan. The registered nurse (RN) identifies the immediate need for treatment because:

 

A.

A hemorrhagic brain attack is more common than an ischemic brain attack.

B.

A thrombolytic drug will cause the peripheral and central reflexes to become hyper-reactive.

C.

A hemorrhagic brain attack requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage.

D.

An ischemic brain attack is less severe than a hemorrhagic brain attack.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

 

A hemorrhagic brain attack (stroke) is less common than an ischemic brain attack. Ischemic strokes account for the majority of strokes.

 

Choice B rationale

 

Thrombolytic drugs are used to treat ischemic strokes, not hemorrhagic strokes. They do not cause hyper-reactive reflexes.

 

Choice C rationale

 

A hemorrhagic brain attack requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Hemorrhagic strokes involve bleeding in the brain, which can rapidly worsen and cause severe damage.

 

Choice D rationale

 

An ischemic brain attack is not necessarily less severe than a hemorrhagic brain attack. Both types of strokes are serious, but hemorrhagic strokes often require more urgent intervention due to the risk of ongoing bleeding.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Administering supplemental oxygen is the priority intervention for a client with COPD who has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. This low oxygen saturation indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate correction to prevent further respiratory distress.

Choice B rationale

Encouraging the client to use an incentive spirometer is important for lung expansion and preventing atelectasis, but it is not the priority intervention in this scenario. The immediate concern is to correct the hypoxemia.

Choice C rationale

Administering a bronchodilator as prescribed is important for managing COPD symptoms, but the priority intervention is to correct the hypoxemia by administering supplemental oxygen.

Choice D rationale

Positioning the client in high Fowler’s position can help improve breathing, but the priority intervention is to correct the hypoxemia by administering supplemental oxygen.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Sepsis is a systemic inflammatory response to infection, often characterized by fever (temperature of 38°C or higher) and tachycardia (heart rate of 120 beats per minute or higher). These symptoms indicate the body’s response to a severe infection.

Choice B rationale

Hypovolemic shock is caused by significant fluid loss, leading to decreased blood volume and perfusion. It typically presents with hypotension and tachycardia, but not necessarily fever.

Choice C rationale

Myocardial infarction (heart attack) is characterized by chest pain, shortness of breath, and other symptoms, but fever and tachycardia are not primary indicators.

Choice D rationale

Pulmonary embolism involves a blockage in the pulmonary arteries, leading to symptoms such as sudden shortness of breath, chest pain, and rapid heart rate, but not typically fever.

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