A patient presents to the emergency department (ED) complaining of nausea, vomiting, and the “worst headache he has ever experienced.”. While examining the patient, the nurse notes left leg and arm weakness.The patient is immediately sent to the radiology department for a CT scan. The registered nurse (RN) identifies the immediate need for treatment because:
A hemorrhagic brain attack is more common than an ischemic brain attack.
A thrombolytic drug will cause the peripheral and central reflexes to become hyper-reactive.
A hemorrhagic brain attack requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage.
An ischemic brain attack is less severe than a hemorrhagic brain attack.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
A hemorrhagic brain attack (stroke) is less common than an ischemic brain attack. Ischemic strokes account for the majority of strokes.
Choice B rationale
Thrombolytic drugs are used to treat ischemic strokes, not hemorrhagic strokes. They do not cause hyper-reactive reflexes.
Choice C rationale
A hemorrhagic brain attack requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Hemorrhagic strokes involve bleeding in the brain, which can rapidly worsen and cause severe damage.
Choice D rationale
An ischemic brain attack is not necessarily less severe than a hemorrhagic brain attack. Both types of strokes are serious, but hemorrhagic strokes often require more urgent intervention due to the risk of ongoing bleeding.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering antihypertensive medication as prescribed is the priority action for a client with a history of hypertension presenting with severe headache, blurred vision, and confusion. These symptoms suggest a hypertensive crisis, which requires immediate blood pressure reduction to prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
Preparing the client for a lumbar puncture is not the priority action in this scenario. While a lumbar puncture may be necessary to rule out other conditions, the immediate concern is to manage the hypertensive crisis.
Choice C rationale
Initiating seizure precautions is important if the client is at risk of seizures, but the priority action is to address the hypertensive crisis by administering antihypertensive medication.vv
Choice D rationale
Monitoring the client’s blood glucose levels is important for overall health management, but it is not the priority action in this scenario. The immediate concern is to manage the hypertensive crisis.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not necessarily concerning for a client with COPD. COPD patients often have higher respiratory rates due to their chronic lung condition.
Choice B rationale
A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) indicates a fever, which could be a sign of infection. However, it is not the most concerning finding in a COPD patient.
Choice C rationale
A pulse oximetry reading of 88% is concerning because it indicates hypoxemia. COPD patients often have lower oxygen levels, but a reading below 90% is worrisome and may require supplemental oxygen or other interventions.
Choice D rationale
A blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg is elevated but not immediately concerning in the context of COPD. It is important to monitor, but it is not the most critical finding.