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A nurse is caring for a client who had a vaginal delivery 2 hr ago and is reporting increasing perineal pain and pressure. The nurse examines the client's perineum and sees a 4 cm (1.6 in) area of purplish discoloration with swelling. The nurse should interpret these findings as which of the following?

 

A.

A hematoma.

B.

Retained placental fragments.

C.

A laceration.

D.

Ecchymosis.

E.

Ecchymosis.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

A hematoma presents as a localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels, causing a purplish discoloration and swelling, often resulting from trauma during delivery.

 

Choice B rationale

Retained placental fragments may cause postpartum hemorrhage and infection but would not present as a localized purplish swelling on the perineum.

 

Choice C rationale

A laceration would involve a tear in the tissue, causing bleeding and pain, but not necessarily a purplish discoloration with localized swelling unless associated with a hematoma.

 

Choice D rationale

Ecchymosis refers to bruising but is typically a more diffuse discoloration rather than a localized swelling and purplish area as seen with a hematoma.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A respiratory rate of 12/min indicates that the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate toxicity has been effectively reversed by calcium gluconate. Normal respiratory rate in adults is 12-20 breaths per minute.

Choice B rationale

Absent deep tendon reflexes indicate ongoing magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate administration should restore normal reflexes, not cause their absence.

Choice C rationale

Slurred speech is a sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Effective treatment with calcium gluconate should improve neurological function and resolve symptoms like slurred speech.

Choice D rationale

A urine output of 22 mL/hr is below the normal range and suggests renal impairment or ongoing toxicity. Effective treatment should result in an increase in urine output to within the normal range (greater than 30 mL/hr).

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Manifestations of shock might not appear until a client loses 20% of their blood volume. This is because the body compensates for blood loss by increasing heart rate and

vasoconstriction, maintaining blood pressure until a significant amount of blood is lost.

Choice B rationale

Hemorrhagic shock will cause a decrease, not an increase, in a client's serum pH due to the accumulation of lactic acid from anaerobic metabolism, leading to metabolic acidosis.

Choice C rationale

The most accurate indication of organ perfusion is a client's urine output. Adequate urine output reflects sufficient renal blood flow and overall perfusion, making it a reliable indicator

of organ perfusion.

Choice D rationale

An infusion of 1 mL of lactated Ringers for each 1 mL of blood loss is not accurate. The typical fluid replacement ratio is 3:, meaning 3 mL of crystalloid solution (like lactated Ringers) is given for each 1 mL of blood loss to account for fluid distribution in the body.

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