A nurse is caring for a client who had a vaginal delivery 2 hr ago and is reporting increasing perineal pain and pressure. The nurse examines the client's perineum and sees a 4 cm (1.6 in) area of purplish discoloration with swelling. The nurse should interpret these findings as which of the following?
A hematoma.
Retained placental fragments.
A laceration.
Ecchymosis.
Ecchymosis.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
A hematoma presents as a localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels, causing a purplish discoloration and swelling, often resulting from trauma during delivery.
Choice B rationale
Retained placental fragments may cause postpartum hemorrhage and infection but would not present as a localized purplish swelling on the perineum.
Choice C rationale
A laceration would involve a tear in the tissue, causing bleeding and pain, but not necessarily a purplish discoloration with localized swelling unless associated with a hematoma.
Choice D rationale
Ecchymosis refers to bruising but is typically a more diffuse discoloration rather than a localized swelling and purplish area as seen with a hematoma.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A positive pregnancy test is a probable sign of pregnancy as it indicates the presence of hCG, a hormone produced during pregnancy. However, it is not a presumptive sign, as other
conditions can also result in elevated hCG levels.
Choice B rationale
Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual periods, is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. It is one of the earliest indications that a woman may be pregnant, though it can also be
caused by other factors such as stress or hormonal imbalances.
Choice C rationale
Fetal heart sounds detected by Doppler ultrasound are a positive sign of pregnancy, confirming the presence of a fetus. This is not a presumptive sign as it is direct evidence of
pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
Chadwick's sign, a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia due to increased blood flow, is considered a probable sign of pregnancy. It is not a presumptive sign but rather
a physical change that occurs during pregnancy. .
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Blood pressure should be assessed as opioid analgesics can cause hypotension, which can be detrimental to both mother and fetus during labor.
Choice B rationale
Fetal heart rate monitoring is essential as opioids can cross the placenta and potentially cause fetal bradycardia or distress, thus necessitating close monitoring.
Choice C rationale
Deep tendon reflexes are not commonly affected by opioid analgesics and therefore are not a primary assessment when administering these medications during labor.
Choice D rationale
Blood glucose levels are not typically influenced by opioid analgesics in the context of labor, so this is not a relevant assessment for this scenario.