A nurse is caring for a client who had a vaginal delivery 2 hr ago and is reporting increasing perineal pain and pressure. The nurse examines the client's perineum and sees a 4 cm (1.6 in) area of purplish discoloration with swelling. The nurse should interpret these findings as which of the following?
A hematoma.
Retained placental fragments.
A laceration.
Ecchymosis.
Ecchymosis.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
A hematoma presents as a localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels, causing a purplish discoloration and swelling, often resulting from trauma during delivery.
Choice B rationale
Retained placental fragments may cause postpartum hemorrhage and infection but would not present as a localized purplish swelling on the perineum.
Choice C rationale
A laceration would involve a tear in the tissue, causing bleeding and pain, but not necessarily a purplish discoloration with localized swelling unless associated with a hematoma.
Choice D rationale
Ecchymosis refers to bruising but is typically a more diffuse discoloration rather than a localized swelling and purplish area as seen with a hematoma.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Elevated BUN levels (25 mg/dL) can indicate kidney dysfunction, dehydration, or high protein intake. However, it’s not directly related to a prenatal complication, though it still
requires monitoring.
Choice B rationale
Hemoglobin (Hgb) of 10.2 mg/dL is below the normal range (11 to 16 mg/dL) and can indicate anemia. During pregnancy, anemia can lead to serious complications such as preterm
birth and low birth weight, making this result significant.
Choice C rationale
A fasting blood glucose level of 70 mg/dL falls within the normal range (70 to 110 mg/dL) and does not indicate a complication. Thus, it is not concerning in the context of prenatal
complications.
Choice D rationale
Hematocrit (Hct) of 32% is slightly below the normal range (33 to 47%), which can be common in pregnancy due to increased plasma volume. While monitoring is required, it’s not as
critical as anemia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Instituting droplet precautions is not necessary for herpes simplex virus (HSV). HSV is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected body fluids or lesions, not through respiratory droplets.
Choice B rationale
Administering ceftriaxone sodium is not appropriate for HSV. Ceftriaxone is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, whereas HSV is a viral infection and requires antiviral treatment.
Choice C rationale
Informing the client they should bottlefeed the newborn is not necessary. Mothers with HSV can breastfeed as long as there are no herpetic lesions on the breast. Proper hand hygiene and preventive measures should be taken to avoid transmission.
Choice D rationale
Obtaining surface cultures from the newborn is the appropriate action. This helps in detecting the presence of HSV and initiating antiviral treatment if necessary. Early detection and treatment are crucial in preventing severe complications associated with neonatal HSV infection.