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A nurse is caring for a client who had a vaginal delivery 2 hr ago and is reporting increasing perineal pain and pressure. The nurse examines the client's perineum and sees a 4 cm (1.6 in) area of purplish discoloration with swelling. The nurse should interpret these findings as which of the following?

 

A.

A hematoma.

B.

Retained placental fragments.

C.

A laceration.

D.

Ecchymosis.

E.

Ecchymosis.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

A hematoma presents as a localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels, causing a purplish discoloration and swelling, often resulting from trauma during delivery.

 

Choice B rationale

Retained placental fragments may cause postpartum hemorrhage and infection but would not present as a localized purplish swelling on the perineum.

 

Choice C rationale

A laceration would involve a tear in the tissue, causing bleeding and pain, but not necessarily a purplish discoloration with localized swelling unless associated with a hematoma.

 

Choice D rationale

Ecchymosis refers to bruising but is typically a more diffuse discoloration rather than a localized swelling and purplish area as seen with a hematoma.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Hypertension is not a characteristic finding of hyperemesis gravidarum, which primarily affects fluid balance and nutritional status.

Choice B rationale

Dry mucous membranes are a sign of dehydration, commonly associated with hyperemesis gravidarum due to excessive vomiting.

Choice C rationale

Tachycardia can result from dehydration and electrolyte imbalances seen in hyperemesis gravidarum.

Choice D rationale

Poor skin turgor indicates dehydration, a common symptom of hyperemesis gravidarum.

Choice E rationale

Polyuria is not typical in hyperemesis gravidarum; the condition usually leads to dehydration, reducing urine output.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Cesarean birth is not necessarily required for GBS-positive clients as long as IV antibiotic prophylaxis is administered during labor to prevent transmission to the newborn.

Choice B rationale

IV antibiotic prophylaxis, typically with penicillin or ampicillin, is given to GBS-positive clients during labor to prevent neonatal GBS infection.

Choice C rationale

Obtaining a vaginal culture at 39 weeks of gestation is not necessary if the client was already screened and found positive for GBS at 36 weeks.

Choice D rationale

Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis, not GBS infection; thus, it is not appropriate for this scenario. .

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